Input: [0] After giving birth to a stillborn infant, the woman turns to the nurse and says, ""I just finished painting the baby's room. Do you think that caused my baby to die?"" The nurse's best response to this woman is: [1] That's an old wives' tale; lots of women are around paint during pregnancy, and this doesn't happen to them. [2] That's not likely. Paint is associated with elevated pediatric lead levels. [3] Silence. [4]

Output: >>""I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?""


Input: [0] What options for saying goodbye would the nurse want to discuss with a woman who is diagnosed with having a stillborn girl? [1] The nurse shouldn't discuss any options at this time; there is plenty of time after the baby is born. [2] Would you like a picture taken of your baby after birth? [3] >>""When your baby is born, would you like to see and hold her?"" [4]

Output: What funeral home do you want notified after the baby is born?


Input: [0] A woman experienced a miscarriage at 10 weeks of gestation and had a dilation and curettage (D&C). She states that she is just fine and wants to go home as soon as possible. While you are assessing her responses to her loss, she tells you that she had purchased some baby things and had picked out a name. On the basis of your assessment of her responses, what nursing intervention would you use first? [1] Ready her for discharge. [2] Notify pastoral care to offer her a blessing. [3] Ask her if she would like to see what was obtained from her D&C. [4]

Output: >>Ask her what name she had picked out for her baby.


Input: [0] A woman is diagnosed with having a stillborn. At first, she appears stunned by the news, cries a little, and then asks you to call her mother. The phase of bereavement the woman is experiencing is called: [1] Anticipatory grief. [2] Intense grief. [3] >>Acute distress. [4]

Output: Reorganization.


Input: [0] During the initial acute distress phase of grieving, parents still must make unexpected and unwanted decisions about funeral arrangements and even naming the baby. The nurse's role should be to: [1] Take over as much as possible to relieve the pressure. [2] Encourage grandparents to take over. [3] >>Make sure the parents themselves approve the final decisions. [4]

Output: Let them alone to work things out.


Input: [0] During a follow-up visit, if parents have progressed to the second stage or phase of grieving, the nurse should not expect to see: [1] Guilt, particularly in the mother. [2] >>Numbness or lack of response. [3] Bitterness or irritability. [4]

Output: Fear and anxiety, especially about getting pregnant again.


Input: [0] The nurse would conclude that grieving parents had progressed to the reorganization/recovery phase during a follow-up visit a year later if: [1] The parents say they feel no pain. [2] >>The parents are discussing sex and a future pregnancy, even if they have not sorted out their feelings yet. [3] The parents have abandoned those moments of bittersweet grief. [4]

Output: The parents' questions have progressed from ""Why?"" to ""Why us?""


Input: [0] The nurse caring for a family during a loss might notice that survival guilt sometimes is felt at the death of an infant by the child's: [1] Siblings. [2] Father. [3] Mother. [4]

Output: >>Grandparents.


Input: [0] When helping the mother, father, and other family members actualize the loss of the infant, nurses should: [1] Use the words lost or gone rather than dead or died. [2] Make sure that the family understands that it is important to name the baby. [3] >>If the parents choose to visit with the baby, apply powder and lotion to the baby and wrap the infant in a pretty blanket. [4]

Output: Set a firm time for ending the visit with the baby so the parents know when to let go.


Input: [0] Nurses who want to help parents with their decision making about an autopsy or who may be required to be involved in seeking consent for autopsies should be aware that: [1] >>Autopsies not specifically covered by insurance or done under the jurisdiction of the medical examiner's office can be very expensive. [2] Autopsies must be done within a few hours after delivery. [3] In the current litigious society more autopsies are performed than in the past. [4]

Output: Most parents who refuse the examination regret it later.


Input: [0] With regard to organ donation after an infant's death, nurses should be aware that: [1] Federal law requires medical staff to ask the parents about organ donation and then to contact their state's organ procurement organization (OPO) to handle the procedure if the parents agree. [2] >>Organ donation can aid grieving by giving the family an opportunity to see something positive about the experience. [3] The most common donation is the infant's kidneys. [4]

Output: Corneas can be donated if the infant was either stillborn or alive, as long as the pregnancy went full term.


Input: [0] Complicated bereavement: [1] Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies, and the other or others live. [2] Is a state in which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion. [3] >>Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time. [4]

Output: Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies.


Input: [0] In helping bereaved parents cope and move on, nurses should keep in mind that: [1] >>A perinatal or parental grief support group is more likely to be helpful if the needs of the parents are matched with the focus of the group. [2] When pictures of the infant are taken for keepsakes, no close-ups should be taken of any congenital anomalies. [3] No significant differences exist in grieving individuals from various cultures, ethnic groups, and religions. [4]

Output: In emergency situations nurses who are so disposed must resist the temptation to baptize the infant in the absence of a priest or minister.


Input: [0] An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed: [1] Only if the newborn is in obvious distress. [2] Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth. [3] >>At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. [4]

Output: Every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.


Input: [0] A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant's eyes and why it is needed. The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the Ilotycin ophthalmic ointment is to: [1] Destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind. [2] >>Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal. [3] Prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant's eyes, leading to dry eyes. [4]

Output: Prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see.


Input: [0] The nurse is using the Ballard scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn. Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks? [1] >>Flexed posture [2] Abundant lanugo [3] Smooth, pink skin with visible veins [4]

Output: Faint red marks on the soles of the feet


Input: [0] A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage. There was a nuchal cord. After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae: [1] >>Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth. [2] Result from increased blood volume. [3] Should always be further investigated. [4]

Output: Usually occur with forceps delivery.


Input: [0] A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to: [1] Apply an oil-based lotion to the newborn's skin to prevent dying and cracking. [2] Limit the newborn's intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. [3] >>Place eye shields over the newborn's closed eyes. [4]

Output: Change the newborn's position every 4 hours.


Input: [0] Early this morning, an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method. The nurse tells the mother that she and the infant can be discharged after: [1] The bleeding stops completely. [2] The PlastiBell rim falls off. [3] Yellow exudate forms over the glans. [4]

Output: >>The infant voids.


Input: [0] A mother expresses fear about changing her infant's diaper after he is circumcised. What does the woman need to be taught to take care of the infant when she gets home? [1] Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours. [2] Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs. [3] >>Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change. [4]

Output: Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to prevent infection.


Input: [0] When preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn, the nurse should: [1] >>Obtain a syringe with a 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle. [2] Confirm that the newborn's mother has been infected with the hepatitis B virus. [3] Assess the dorsogluteal muscle as the preferred site for injection. [4]

Output: Confirm that the newborn is at least 24 hours old.


Input: [0] The nurse is performing a gestational age and physical assessment on the newborn. The infant appears to have an excessive amount of saliva. The nurse recognizes that this finding: [1] Is normal. [2] Indicates that the infant is hungry. [3] >>May indicate that the infant has a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia. [4]

Output: May indicate that the infant has a diaphragmatic hernia.


Input: [0] As part of Standard Precautions, nurses wear gloves when handling the newborn. The chief reason is: [1] To protect the baby from infection. [2] That it is part of the Apgar protocol. [3] >>To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn. [4]

Output: Because the nurse has primary responsibility for the baby during the first 2 hours.


Input: [0] At 1 minute after birth the nurse assesses the infant and notes: a heart rate of 80 beats/min, some flexion of extremities, a weak cry, grimacing, and a pink body but blue extremities. The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of: [1] 4 [2] 6 [3] >>5. [4]

Output: 7


Input: [0] An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n): [1] Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing. [2] Infant in severe distress that needs resuscitation. [3] Prediction of a future free of neurologic problems. [4]

Output: >>Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.


Input: [0] With regard to umbilical cord care, nurses should be aware that: [1] >>The stump can easily become infected. [2] A nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for assistance. [3] The cord clamp is removed at cord separation. [4]

Output: The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days.


Input: [0] In the classification of newborns by gestational age and birth weight, the appropriate for gestational age (AGA) weight would: [1] Fall between the 25th and 75th percentiles for the infant's age. [2] Depend on the infant's length and the size of the head. [3] >>Fall between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infant's age. [4]

Output: Be modified to consider intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).


Input: [0] During the complete physical examination 24 hours after birth: [1] The parents are excused to reduce their normal anxiety. [2] >>The nurse can gauge the neonate's maturity level by assessing its general appearance. [3] Once often neglected, blood pressure is now routinely checked. [4]

Output: When the nurse listens to the heart, the S1 and S2 sounds can be heard; the first sound is somewhat higher in pitch and sharper than the second.


Input: [0] With regard to laboratory tests and diagnostic tests in the hospital after birth, nurses should be aware that: [1] All states test for phenylketonuria (PKU), hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell diseases. [2] Federal law prohibits newborn genetic testing without parental consent. [3] >>If genetic screening is done before the infant is 24 hours old, it should be repeated at age 1 to 2 weeks. [4]

Output: Hearing screening is now mandated by federal law.


Input: [0] Nurses can help parents deal with the issue and fact of circumcision if they explain: [1] >>The pros and cons of the procedure during the prenatal period. [2] That the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that all newborn males be routinely circumcised. [3] That circumcision is rarely painful and any discomfort can be managed without medication. [4]

Output: That the infant will likely be alert and hungry shortly after the procedure.


Input: [0] As part of their teaching function at discharge, nurses should tell parents that the baby's respiration should be protected by all of the following procedures except: [1] Preventing exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections. [2] Keeping the infant away from secondhand smoke. [3] Avoiding loose bedding, water beds, and beanbag chairs. [4]

Output: >>Not letting the infant sleep on his or her back.


Input: [0] The normal term infant has little difficulty clearing its airway after birth. Most secretions are brought up to the oropharynx by the cough reflex. However, if the infant has excess secretions, the mouth and nasal passages can be cleared easily with a bulb syringe. When instructing parents on the correct use of this piece of equipment, it is important that the nurse teach them to: [1] Avoid suctioning the nares. [2] Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth. [3] >>Suction the mouth first. [4]

Output: Remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished.


Input: [0] A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds, 6 ounces). The nurse's most appropriate action is to: [1] Leave the infant in the room with the mother. [2] Take the infant immediately to the nursery. [3] Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age. [4]

Output: >>Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.


Input: [0] Infants of mothers with diabetes are at higher risk for developing: [1] Anemia. [2] >>Respiratory distress syndrome. [3] Hyponatremia. [4]

Output: Sepsis.


Input: [0] An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation, weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of: [1] Birth injury. [2] >>Hypoglycemia. [3] Hypocalcemia. [4]

Output: Seizures.


Input: [0] An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths/min with marked substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure. Which arterial oxygen level would indicate hypoxia? [1] PaO2 of 67 [2] >>PaO2 of 45 [3] PaO2 of 89 [4]

Output: PaO2 of 73


Input: [0] On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask if they can hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Given that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response would the nurse give? [1] Parents are not allowed to hold infants who depend on oxygen. [2] You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding. [3] Feedings cause more physiologic stress, so the baby must be closely monitored. Therefore, I don't think you should hold the baby. [4]

Output: >>""You may hold your baby during the feeding.""


Input: [0] A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? [1] >>""Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."" [2] The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation. [3] Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. [4]

Output: Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.


Input: [0] When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which of the following should be documented each time? [1] The infant's abdominal circumference after the feeding [2] The infant's heart rate and respirations [3] The infant's suck and swallow coordination [4]

Output: >>The infant's response to the feeding


Input: [0] An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. What intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? [1] Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes [2] Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes [3] >>Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes [4]

Output: Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes


Input: [0] An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives from the delivery room intubated. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to: [1] >>Listen to breath sounds and ensure the patency of the endotracheal tube, increase oxygen, and notify a physician. [2] Continue to observe and make no changes until the saturations are 75%. [3] Continue with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed. [4]

Output: Notify the parents that their infant is not doing well.


Input: [0] A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian female whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to: [1] Wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer. [2] >>Go to the parents, introduce himself or herself, and gently encourage them to come meet their infant; explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn. [3] Leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so they can have some privacy. [4]

Output: Tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition and caution them to avoid touching their baby.


Input: [0] Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include: [1] Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis. [2] >>Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools. [3] Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color. [4]

Output: Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output.


Input: [0] An infant is being discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including respiratory distress syndrome, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia, and retinopathy of prematurity requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching the infant's mother asks the nurse if her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. The nurse's most appropriate response is: [1] Your baby will develop exactly like your first child did. [2] Your baby does not appear to have any problems at the present time. [3] >>""Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity. Your baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing."" [4]

Output: Your baby will need to be followed very closely.


Input: [0] A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: [1] >>Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. [2] Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. [3] Golden yellow- to green stained‚Äìskin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. [4]

Output: Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.


Input: [0] For diagnostic and treatment purposes nurses should know the birth weight classifications of high risk infants. For example, extremely low birth weight (ELBW) is the designation for an infant whose weight is: [1] Less than 1500 g. [2] Less than 2000 g. [3] >>Less than 1000 g. [4]

Output: Dependent on the gestational age.


Input: [0] In the continuing assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect: [1] >>Hypovolemia and/or shock. [2] Central nervous system injury. [3] A nonneutral thermal environment. [4]

Output: Pending renal failure.


Input: [0] Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are: [1] Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea. [2] Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure. [3] Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment. [4]

Output: >>Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.


Input: [0] In appraising the growth and development potential of a preterm infant, nurses should: [1] Tell parents their child won't catch up until about age 10 (girls) to 12 (boys). [2] >>Correct for milestones such as motor competencies and vocalizations until the child is approximately 3 years of age. [3] Know that the greatest catch-up period is between 9 and 15 months postconceptual age. [4]

Output: Know that the length and breadth of the trunk is the first part of the infant to experience catch-up growth.


Input: [0] The nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age. This intervention: [1] Is adopted from classical British nursing traditions. [2] Helps infants with motor and central nervous system impairment. [3] >>Helps infants to interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation. [4]

Output: Gets infants ready for breastfeeding.


Input: [0] For clinical purposes preterm and postterm infants are defined as: [1] Preterm before 34 weeks if appropriate for gestational age (AGA); before 37 weeks if small for gestational age (SGA). [2] Postterm after 40 weeks if large for gestational age (LGA); beyond 42 weeks if AGA. [3] >>Preterm before 37 weeks, postterm beyond 42 weeks, no matter the size for gestational age at birth. [4]

Output: Preterm, SGA before 38 to 40 weeks; postterm, LGA beyond 40 to 42 weeks.


Input: [0] With regard to small for gestational age (SGA) infants and intrauterine growth restrictions (IUGR), nurses should be aware that: [1] In the first trimester diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR. [2] >>Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development. [3] In asymmetric IUGR weight will be slightly more than SGA, whereas length and head circumference will be somewhat less than SGA. [4]

Output: Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.


Input: [0] With regard to eventual discharge of the high risk newborn or transfer to a different facility, nurses and families should be aware that: [1] Infants will stay in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) until they are ready to go home. [2] Once discharged to home, the high risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn. [3] >>Parents of high risk infants need special support and detailed contact information. [4]

Output: If a high risk infant and mother need transfer to a specialized regional center, it is better to wait until after birth and the infant is stabilized.


Input: [0] Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive; however, there are known interventions that may decrease the risk of NEC. To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant, the nurse must understand that which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC? [1] Early enteral feedings [2] Exchange transfusion [3] >>Breastfeeding [4]

Output: Prophylactic probiotics


Input: [0] As a result of large body surface in relation to weight, the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress. By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. While evaluating the plan that has been implemented, the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits: [1] Decreased respiratory rate. [2] Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate. [3] >>Mottled skin with acrocyanosis. [4]

Output: Increased physical activity.


Input: [0] A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborn's distress is most likely to be: [1] Hypoglycemia. [2] Respiratory distress syndrome. [3] Phrenic nerve injury. [4]

Output: >>Sepsis.


Input: [0] The most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection is: [1] >>Good handwashing. [2] Separate gown technique. [3] Isolation of infected infants. [4]

Output: Standard Precautions.


Input: [0] A pregnant woman presents in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth her infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. On the basis of her infant's physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy? [1] >>Alcohol [2] Heroin [3] Cocaine [4]

Output: Marijuana


Input: [0] A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include: [1] Administering chloral hydrate for sedation. [2] Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest. [3] >>Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly. [4]

Output: Playing soft music during feeding.


Input: [0] Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be perinatally transmitted: [1] Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. [2] By a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments. [3] Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid. [4]

Output: >>Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.


Input: [0] The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in the United States? [1] >>Alcohol [2] Marijuana [3] Tobacco [4]

Output: Heroin


Input: [0] During a prenatal examination, the woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse informs her that she should not be cleaning the litter box while she is pregnant. When the woman asks why, the nurse's best response would be: [1] >>""Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child."" [2] You and your baby can be exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in your cats' feces. [3] It's just gross. You should make your husband clean the litter boxes. [4]

Output: Cat feces are known to carry Escherichia coli, which can cause a severe infection in both you and your baby.


Input: [0] A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks, ""What is that medicine for?"" The nurse responds: [1] It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better. [2] It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract. [3] >>""Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection."" [4]

Output: This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days.


Input: [0] With regard to skeletal injuries sustained by a neonate during labor or birth, nurses should be aware that: [1] A newborn's skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily. [2] >>Unless a blood vessel is involved, linear skull fractures heal without special treatment. [3] Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability. [4]

Output: Other than the skull, the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.


Input: [0] With regard to injuries to the infant's plexus during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: [1] >>If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. [2] Erb palsy is damage to the lower plexus. [3] Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under the axillae. [4]

Output: Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the condition resolves.


Input: [0] With regard to central nervous system injuries to the infant during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: [1] Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm, low-birth-weight infant. [2] Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH) occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia. [3] >>In many infants signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and diagnosed only through laboratory tests. [4]

Output: Spinal cord injuries almost always result from forceps-assisted deliveries.


Input: [0] With regard to the classification of neonatal bacterial infection, nurses should be aware that: [1] Congenital infection progresses slower than nosocomial infection. [2] >>Nosocomial infection can be prevented by effective handwashing; early-onset infections cannot. [3] Infections occur with about the same frequency in boy and girl infants, although female mortality is higher. [4]

Output: The clinical sign of a rapid, high fever makes infection easier to diagnose.


Input: [0] Near the end of the first week of life an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored, maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. The newborn is showing signs of: [1] Gonorrhea. [2] >>Congenital syphilis. [3] Herpes simplex virus infection. [4]

Output: Human immunodeficiency virus.


Input: [0] What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment? [1] Escherichia coli infection [2] Candidiasis [3] Tuberculosis [4]

Output: >>Group B streptococcal infection


Input: [0] In caring for the mother who has abused (or is abusing) alcohol and for her infant, nurses should be aware that: [1] The pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after birth, and normal growth takes over. [2] Two thirds of newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are boys. [3] >>Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to school. [4]

Output: Both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental capacities tend toward normal over time.


Input: [0] A careful review of the literature on the various recreational and illicit drugs reveals that: [1] >>More longer-term studies are needed to assess the lasting effects on infants when mothers have taken or are taking illegal drugs. [2] Heroin and methadone cross the placenta; marijuana, cocaine, and phencyclidine (PCP) do not. [3] Mothers should get off heroin (detox) any time they can during pregnancy. [4]

Output: Methadone withdrawal for infants is less severe and shorter than heroin withdrawal.


Input: [0] With regard to the understanding and treatment of infants born to mothers who are substance abusers, nurses should be aware that: [1] Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted. [2] >>Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another, compounding the infant's difficulties. [3] The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself. [4]

Output: No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.


Input: [0] Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. The first step in the provision of this care is: [1] Pharmacologic treatment. [2] Reduction of environmental stimuli. [3] >>Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring. [4]

Output: Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance.


Input: [0] While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that the most common birth injury is: [1] To the soft tissues. [2] Caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery. [3] Fracture of the humerus and femur. [4]

Output: >>Fracture of the clavicle.


Input: [0] The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: [1] Hepatic disease. [2] Postmaturity. [3] >>Hemolytic disorders in the newborn. [4]

Output: Congenital heart defect.


Input: [0] Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility? [1] >>Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor [2] Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative [3] Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor [4]

Output: Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive


Input: [0] A major nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele is to: [1] >>Protect the sac from injury. [2] Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down. [3] Prepare the parents for closure of the sac at around 2 years of age. [4]

Output: Assess for cyanosis.


Input: [0] The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia would be: [1] Risk for impaired parent-infant attachment. [2] Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. [3] Risk for infection. [4]

Output: >>Impaired gas exchange.


Input: [0] An infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis would characteristically exhibit: [1] Edema. [2] Enlargement of the heart. [3] >>Immature red blood cells. [4]

Output: Ascites.


Input: [0] With regard to hemolytic diseases of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: [1] Rh incompatibility matters only when an Rh-negative offspring is born to an Rh-positive mother. [2] ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh incompatibility to precipitate significant anemia. [3] Exchange transfusions frequently are required in the treatment of hemolytic disorders. [4]

Output: >>The indirect Coombs' test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct Coombs' test is performed on the cord blood after birth.


Input: [0] With regard to congenital anomalies of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, nurses should be aware that: [1] >>Cardiac disease may be manifested by respiratory signs and symptoms. [2] Screening for congenital anomalies of the respiratory system need only be done for infants having respiratory distress. [3] Choanal atresia can be corrected by a suction catheter. [4]

Output: Congenital diaphragmatic hernias are diagnosed and treated after birth.


Input: [0] When attempting to diagnose and treat developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the nurse should: [1] Be able to perform the Ortolani and Barlow tests. [2] Teach double or triple diapering for added support. [3] Explain to the parents the need for serial casting. [4]

Output: >>Carefully monitor infants for DDH at follow-up visits.


Input: [Type of Reaction] Alloimmunization to red cell antigens (usually an anamnestic immune response that occurs from 3-10 days post-transfusion) Risk: 1-1.6% per donor unit [Symptoms] • Fever • Decreasing hemoglobin • Mild jaundice • Signs of hemolysis in about 20-35% of sensitized recipients [Definition]

Output: Development of newly formed antibodies to red cell antigens


Input: [Type of Reaction] Alloimmunization to leukocyte antigens Occurs in patients receiving repeated platelet transfusions and women with for > 4 pregnancies [Symptoms] • Signs of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions [Definition]

Output: Development of antibodies to leukocyte (HLA) antigens


Input: [Type of Reaction] Refractoriness to platelet transfusion [Symptoms] • Poor incremental increase in platelet count after a suitable dose of platelets [Definition]

Output: Rapid clearance of transfused platelets due to HLA sensitization or other clinical factors


Input: [Type of Reaction] Post-transfusion purpura (usually occurs > 1 week after transfusion) [Symptoms] • Precipitous fall in platelet count • Generalized purpura [Definition]

Output: Abrupt onset of severe thrombocytopenia an average of 9 days post transfusion (range 1-24 days)


Input: [Type of Reaction] Iron overload Occurs in chronically transfused patients (> 20 units per lifetime) [Symptoms] • Interference with heart, liver or endocrine gland function • Hepatic failure • Cardiac toxicity [Definition]

Output: Accumulation of iron and no physiologic means of excretion


Input: [Type of Reaction] Acute Transfusion-associated Graft-vs-Host disease [Symptoms] • Fever • Erythroderma, often starting on palms, soles, earlobes, and face, ranging from edema to full blistering • Enterocolitis [Definition]

Output: Immunologic complication caused by engraftment and proliferation of donor lymphocytes in a susceptible host


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin A [Where do I find it?] Yellow –orange coloured fruits (papaya, mango) and vegetables (carrots, pumpkins), green leafy vegetables, fish liver oil, liver, whole milk products (yogurt, cream, butter, and ghee). [Why do I need it?]

Output: For proper eyesight. Keeps the mucus membranes healthy. Provides resistance to infections.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin D [Where do I find it?] Exposure to sunlight activates a form of vitamin D lying beneath the skin.Foods fortified with vitamin D like milk and butter. [Why do I need it?]

Output: To provide health and strength to the bones and teeth. For the uptake of calcium from the diet.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin E [Where do I find it?] Nuts like almonds, egg yolk, wheat germ, vegetable oils, green leafy vegetables. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Works as an antioxidant to protect the cells from free radical damage. Required for normal reproductive growth.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin K [Where do I find it?] Green leafy vegetables, wheat bran, cheese and egg yolk. [Why do I need it?]

Output: It is required for normal blood clotting. It controls bleeding and hemorrhage.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin B 1 (Thiamin) [Where do I find it?] Grains like rice, whole wheat. Also made by the bacteria in the intestines. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Metabolism of carbohydrates to release energy. Needed for proper functioning of nervous system.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin B 2 (Riboflavin) [Where do I find it?] Yeast, green leafy vegetables, whole grains, peas, milk and milk products, organ meats and eggs. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Required by the cells to release energy. Determines health of eyes and their sensitivity to light. Deficiency causes fissures to occur at corner of mouth, nose and ears.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin B 3 (Niacin) [Where do I find it?] Whole grains, legumes, peas, nuts, meat, fish, poultry and milk. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Deficiency causes skin disorders, problems of the nervous system, depression, diarrhea and in severe cases death.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin B 6 (Pyridoxine) [Where do I find it?] Milk, egg yolk. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Essential for maintaining the normal hormone levels. Important for the development of the nervous system. Involved in metabolizing fat and carbohydrate in the body.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin B 12 [Where do I find it?] Liver and kidney are the best sources besides milk, eggs, meat, cheese, yeast and seafood. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Raw material used to make red blood cells that are carriers of oxygen to the body.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Vitamin C [Where do I find it?] Richest source is amla followed by citrus fruits like oranges, sweet lime. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Needed to heal wounds and repair tissues. Protects against infections.


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Folic Acid [Where do I find it?] Green leafy vegetables, asparagus, broccoli, fruits, yeasts, non-vegetarian foods. [Why do I need it?]

Output: They are essential components needed to make red blood cells. Deficiency leads to anemia that is life threatening. Functions as a co-enzyme within the body


Input: [What’s the nutrient?] Biotin [Where do I find it?] Liver, kidney, egg yolk and most vegetables. [Why do I need it?]

Output: Required to mmetabolise carbohydrates and fat.


Input: [Diode Family] Cat's Whisker [Time Frame] 1906 [Application] AM radio reception [Construction]

Output: SiC, Si, Galena with tungsten wire on "sweet spot"


Input: [Diode Family] Point Contact [Time Frame] Subsequent improvement [Application] AM reception, microwave detection [Construction]

Output: Germanium with tungsten wire, usually housed in glass.


Input: [Diode Family] Copper Oxide [Time Frame] 1927 [Application] High current battery charger [Construction]

Output: Stacked Copper oxide and Iron disks on a bolt


Input: [Diode Family] Selenium [Time Frame] 1933 [Application] High Voltage rectifier, battery charger [Construction]

Output: Stacked Selenium and metal deposits.


Input: [Diode Family] Junction Diode [Time Frame] 1940 [Application] General purpose, computer diode [Construction]

Output: Silicon or Germanium, Chemical deposition of impurities


Input: [Diode Family] Schottky Diode [Time Frame] 1938 [Application] High frequency detection, high speed high power rectification [Construction]

Output: N-Type Silicon and metal deposition


Input: [Diode Family] Varicap Diode [Application] Voltage controlled tuning [Construction]

Output: Junction Diode, doping profile


Input: [Diode Family] PIN Diode [Application] Current controlled attenuation [Construction]

Output: Junction diode with intrinsic layer


Input: [Diode Family] Zener Diode [Application] Voltage regulation, clamping [Construction]

Output: Junction diode, doping profile


Input: [Diode Family] Light Emitting Diode [Application] Indicator lamp, house lighting [Construction]

Output: Junction Diode, exposed junction


Input: [Diode Family] Photo Diode [Application] Light detection, LED-optical isolation [Construction]

Output: Junction Diode, exposed junction


Input: [Diode Family] Solar Cell [Application] Solar electrical power generation [Construction]

Output: Junction Diode, Wide Area


Input: [Diode Family] Tunnel diode [Application] not mentioned, u-wave oscillators [Construction]

Output: highly doped junction diode


Input: [Diode Family] Impatt diodes [Application] not mentioned, u-wave oscillators [Construction]

Output: Not really a diode, no junction


Input: [Diode Family] Step Recovery Diode [Application] not mentioned - Uses recombination charge to create sharp snap off pulse for harmonic generation at microwaves [Construction]

Output: Junction Diode, processed for high frequency with charge storage in junction


Input: [Diode Family] Diacs [Application] not mentioned - fires Triac devices [Construction]

Output: Not really a diode


Input: [0] Snack [1] Vegetable [2] Fruit [3] Grains [5] Protein [4]

Output: Dairy


Input: [0] Banana and yogurt [2] banana [4]

Output: low fat yogurt


Input: [0] Whole grain pita pocket with ricotta cheese and apple slices [2] apple slices [3] whole grain pita pocket [4]

Output: low fat ricotta cheese


Input: [0] Frozen yogurt on two graham crackers and add sliced banana [2] sliced banana [3] graham crackers [4]

Output: low fat frozen yogurt


Input: [0] Low fat vanilla yogurt with crunchy granola and blueberries. [2] blueberries [3] crunchy granola [4]

Output: low fat vanilla yogurt


Input: [0] Snack kebabs of low fat cheese and grapes on pretzel sticks. [2] grapes [4]

Output: low fat cheese


Input: [0] Waffle cone with cut-up fruit and low fat vanilla yogurt [2] cut-up fruit [3] waffle cone [5] Waffle cone with cut-up fruit and low fat vanilla yogurt [4]

Output: low fat vanilla yogurt


Input: [0] Flour tortilla with a slice of turkey or ham, low fat cheese and lettuce. [1] lettuce [3] flour tortilla [5] turkey or ham [4]

Output: low fat cheese


Input: [Description] Sudden pain (mild or severe) lasting any amount of time [Cause] Sickle cells clog small blood vessels, restricting blood flow [Complication]

Output: Pain Crisis


Input: [Description] Swelling in hands & feet, often with fever [Cause] Sickle cells clog small blood vessels, restricting blood flow to hands & feet [Complication]

Output: Hand-foot Syndrome


Input: [Description] Tiredness, irritability, dizziness & lightheadedness, fast heart rate, difficulty breathing, pale skin color, jaundice, slow growth, delayed puberty [Cause] Sickle cells die early, so there are not enough healthy red blood cells to take oxygen to the tissues [Complication]

Output: Anemia


Input: [Description] Any harmful infection; pneumonia is particularly dangerous for infants & children with sickle cell disease [Cause] Reduced ability to fight infections [Complication]

Output: Infections


Input: [Description] Symptoms similar to pneumonia (chest pain, coughing, difficulty breathing, & fever) [Cause] Unclear (possibly fat embolism—blockage of blood vessels—or infection) [Complication]

Output: Acute Chest Syndrome


Input: [Description] Sudden weakness, pale lips, fast breathing, extreme thirst, abdominal (belly) pain on the left side of body, & fast heart beat [Cause] Many sickle cells become trapped in the spleen, which enlarges suddenly [Complication]

Output: Splenic Sequestration


Input: [Description] Retina damage; possible blindness [Cause] Sickle cells clog small blood vessels, restricting blood flow to the eye(s) [Complication]

Output: Vision Loss


Input: [Description] Ulcers on lower part of leg [Cause] Unclear [Complication]

Output: Leg Ulcers


Input: [Description] Paralysis/numbness on one side of body, difficulty with speech/vision, sudden severe headache with possible loss of consciousness, (partial) seizures [Cause] Sickle cells clog small blood vessels, restricting blood flow to the brain [Complication]

Output: Stroke


Input: [0] Alloy [2] Available? [3] Springiness [4] Notes [1]

Output: Bendable?


Input: [0] Mild Steel [2] Easily available in every hardware store in 10 feet costs about $5 [3] Mild steel has the perfect amount of spring, [4] I would still be using this if it didn't rust. i used it for 10 years exclusively, it's a good metal to learn on. and you can dip it in lacquer to rust proof it. [1]

Output: Yes, it is firm, I tend to work in a 16 Gauge or below. It is not Especially brittle I can bend it back and fourth about 6 times


Input: [0] Carbon Steel [2] McMaster.com [3] very springy [4] If a steel has more carbon, then it is more springy and hard to bend [1]

Output: This is very Firm so if you work with it you need to work thin


Input: [0] Stainless Steel [2] McMaster.com probably would have some 304 alloy or 316 alloy also it is used as a mig welding wire welding. Aircraftspruce.com sells safety wire made by malin co. [3] very springy [1]

Output: This is very Firm so if you work with it you need to work thin, or get some "safety wire" which is annealed stainless


Input: [0] Low Carbon Stainless Steel [2] McMaster.com and many other wire suppliers [3] This Was rather mushy, If I remember right [4] if there is an L after the alloy name (304L) this indicated a low carbon stainless steel so it's softer. it will still be firm. There Is, I think, Stainless steel Tie Wire Which is Low carbon and therefore Soft it comes in a spool. [1]

Output: Yes it is bendable and Crimpable, not brittle


Input: [0] T316L 1/8 Hard [2] Malin Company. possibly I got it through McMaster, I can't remember [3] Springy [4] This didn't stay bright it says it arrived with mill scale and now there is a little rust on it. [1]

Output: Bendable Crimpable Good to work with in the .040 size.


Input: [Details] Single Sheet Feeder - Simplex Colour Scanning [Specification]

Output: Scanner type


Input: [Details] User Selectable Straight Path or L–turn Path [Specification]

Output: Paper Path


Input: [Details] Colour / Grayscale / Black & White / Automatic Colour Detection [Specification]

Output: Scan modes


Input: [Details] CIS (Contact Image Sensor) 600 dpi optical resolution [Specification]

Output: Image sensor


Input: [Details] 3 colour LED (Red / Green / Blue) [Specification]

Output: Light source


Input: [Details] Normal mode (7.5 sec/page, Letter size) Colour / Grayscale: 150dpi Black & White: 300dpi Fine mode (7.5 sec/page, Letter size) Colour / Grayscale: 200dpi Black & White: 400dpi Super fine mode (7.5 sec/page, Letter size) Colour / Grayscale: 300dpi Black & White: 600dpi Excellent mode (35 sec/page, Letter size) Colour / Grayscale: 600dpi Black & White: 1200dpi Auto mode (7.5 sec/page, Letter size) A6 paper or smaller: Super fine mode Longer than A6: Fine mode [Specification]

Output: Scanning Speed / Output resolution


Input: [Details] Automatic paper size detection from 1" x 1" up to Legal size (8.5"x14"). Up to 8.5" x 34" in long document mode (300 dpi or less) Folded 11"x17" using optional carrier sheet [Specification]

Output: Scanning range


Input: [Details] Flat: up to 0.76mm thick Embossed: up to 1.24mm thick (0.76mm card thickness + 0.48mm embossed) [Specification]

Output: Plastic Cards


Input: [Details] Straight Path: 14 to 56 lbs, plastic cards (ISO 7810 type1) L–turn Path: 14 to 20 lbs [Specification]

Output: Paper weight


Input: [Details] USB 2.0 (USB 1.1 compatible) [Specification]

Output: Interface


Input: [Details] ScanSnap Manager (TWAIN / ISIS™ not supported) [Specification]

Output: Driver


Input: [Details] Windows PDF, searchable PDF, JPEG, XLS, DOC Mac PDF, searchable PDF, JPEG, XLS, RTF [Specification]

Output: Output formats


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Flasher switch to flasher unit [TRACER]

Output: Brown


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] a)Flasher switch to left-hand flasher warning light [TRACER]

Output: Blue


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Fuel tank changeover switch to right-hand tank unit or entry and exit door closed switch to door actuator [TRACER]

Output: Red


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Flasher unit to flasher warning light [TRACER]

Output: Purple


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Start inhibitor relay to change speed switch; or switch to heater blower motor second speed on three-speed unit [TRACER]

Output: Green


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Low air pressure switch to buzzer and warning light [TRACER]

Output: White


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Flasher switch to right-hand warning light; or differential lock switch to differential lock warning light [TRACER]

Output: Yellow


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Front screen jet switch to screen jet motor [TRACER]

Output: Black


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Fuel tank changeover switch to left-hand tank unit; or entry and exit door open switch to door actuator [TRACER]

Output: Slate


Input: [MAIN] Light green [PURPOSE] Rear window wash switch to wash pump; or cab lock-down switch to warning light [TRACER]

Output: Orange


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 200 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 500 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 510 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 705 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 800 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 810 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Edge 1000 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Fenix [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Fenix2/2SE [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Fenix3 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 10 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 15 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 60 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 70 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 305 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 310XT [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 405 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 410 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 610 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Non [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 620 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 910XT [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Forerunner 920XT [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Tactix [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Touring [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Touring Pro [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin VIRB [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin VIRB Elite [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Vivoactive [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Vivofit [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Garmin Vivofit2 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Magellan Switch [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Magellan Switch Up [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Mio Cyclo 505 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Motorola Motoactv [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] O-Synce Navi2Coach [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Polar products (any/all) [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] PowerTap Joule [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] PowerTap Joule 2.0 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] PowerTap Joule 3.0 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] PowerTap Joule GPS [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Suunto Ambit [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Suunto Ambit2 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Suunto Ambit2 S [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Suunto Ambit2 R [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Suunto Ambit3 (all models) [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Timex Cycle Trainer 2.0 [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Mixed [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Timex Global Trainer [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Mixed [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] TomTom Products (any/all) [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Wahoo RFLKT [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] No [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] No

Output: No

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Product Name] Wahoo RFLKT+ [ANT+ Cadence-only Sensor] Yes [ANT+ Speed-only Sensor] Yes

Output: Yes

A look at Garmin’s new ANT+ Speed & Cadence magnet-less sensors | DC Rainmaker


Input: [Effect on Water] Low alkalinity water tends to dissolve minerals and metals. Water with high alkalinity tend to precipitate minerals and metals [Suggested Treatment] Use Soda Ash to raise, Use white vinegar or citric acid to lower [Problem]

Output: pH


Input: [Effect on Water] Discolored water [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Aluminum


Input: [Effect on Water] Salty taste [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Chloride


Input: [Effect on Water] Visible tint [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation Activated Carbon Filtration [Problem]

Output: Color


Input: [Effect on Water] Blue-green coloration, metallic taste [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Copper


Input: [Effect on Water] Metallic Taste Corrosion Fixture Staining [Suggested Treatment] Calcite Filter Soda Ash Chemical Feed Polyphosphate Feed Sodium Silicate Feed [Problem]

Output: Corrosion


Input: [Effect on Water] Spotting and mottling of teeth [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Fluoride


Input: [Effect on Water] Suds, Bitter Taste, Odor [Suggested Treatment] Chlorination Activated Carbon Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Foaming Agents (MBAS)


Input: [Effect on Water] Limescale deposits in plumbing and water appliances, Reduced heating efficiency, Lowers lifespan of boiler units, Requires more soap [Suggested Treatment] Water Conditioner Water Softener [Problem]

Output: Hard Water


Input: [Effect on Water] Rusty color Sediment Reddish or orange stains Metallic tase [Suggested Treatment] Oxidizing Filter Chlorination -> AC Filter [Problem]

Output: Iron


Input: [Effect on Water] Dark brown / Black stains Bitter, metallic taste [Suggested Treatment] Oxidizing Filter Chlorination -> AC Filter [Problem]

Output: Manganese


Input: [Effect on Water] Sweet solvent odor Possbile carcinogen [Suggested Treatment] Activated Carbon Filter [Problem]

Output: MTBE (Methyl Tertiary Butyl Ether)


Input: [Effect on Water] Rotten egg Musty Garlic Chemical Smell [Suggested Treatment] Activated Carbon Filter [Problem]

Output: Odor


Input: [Effect on Water] Skin discoloration Grey tint in white part of eye [Suggested Treatment] Activated Carbon Filtration Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Silver


Input: [Effect on Water] Medicinal taste Acts as a laxative [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Sulfate


Input: [Effect on Water] Hard Water Deposits on glass and fixtures [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation Water Conditioner Water Softener [Problem]

Output: Total Dissolved Solids


Input: [Effect on Water] Metallic taste [Suggested Treatment] Reverse Osmosis Distillation [Problem]

Output: Zinc


Input: [Power] High [Performance] High [Examples] These are for super fast computers where we pay power and programmer effort to get ninja performance. The best examples is 3D games running on high performance discreet GPUs. Coding them requires a lot of effort as programmers optimize their code to the last bit and the chip burns large amount of power, providing very high performance in return. [Programmer Effort]

Output: High

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] High [Performance] Low [Examples] Not a good idea. This will be a failed design in my opinion. [Programmer Effort]

Output: High

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] Low [Performance] High [Examples] Network chips like the Intel IXP are great examples of this. Coding anything complex on these chips is a nightmare, but if something can be mapped onto them successfully, they provide very high performance for low power. Other examples that follow this trends to a lesser extent include the Intel Itanium chip. Itanium is a VLIW (Very Long Instruction Word) machine. It requires programmers to specify instruction scheduling which increases their work. However, Itanium provides means to get higher efficiency at lower programer effort. [Programmer Effort]

Output: High

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] Low [Performance] Low [Examples] This applies to chips where you need a lot of effort just to get the code working. I can’t think of a good solid example here. Suggestions? [Programmer Effort]

Output: High

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] High [Performance] High [Examples] We have been uses architectures in this category for a while. Many common commercial processors fall in this category, e.g., Intel Core2 or i7 architectures. These chips employ power-hungry techniques like out-of-order execution to extract performance out of the software. Consequently, programmers can write sloppy code but still get higher performance, if the customer is willing to pay for high power. These chips are found in our desktops and laptops today. [Programmer Effort]

Output: Low

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] High [Performance] Low [Examples] This is the case where performance is solely used for programmer efficiency. Using scripting languages like python generates these test cases where programmer effort is low, performance is low, but power is high because the hardware is trying to improve performance of this code. [Programmer Effort]

Output: Low

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] Low [Performance] High [Examples] Would be great, but this doesn’t usually happen on interesting workloads. [Programmer Effort]

Output: Low

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Power] Low [Performance] Low [Examples] There is a large market for these processors, any guesses? Your mobile devices has these chips in them by the dozens. These include the Intel Atom and also ARM-based chips that are used by Apple, Qualcomm, etc. In these devices, performance requirements are low so they trade performance for power. Programmer effort is low as they allow programmers to write code in high-level languages and use automated compilers for some best-effort optimizations. [Programmer Effort]

Output: Low

Three factors that influence CPU architecture | Future Chips


Input: [Product Features] Detailed Reviews [#2 dRIVERCure] Try DriverCure 2nd Choice [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Try Driver Genius 3rd Choice [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Try Driver Scanner 1st Choice

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Free Driver Scan [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes - Free Scan to Identify any Outdated, Corrupt or Missing Device Drivers on your PC

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Automatically Identifies your PC Make Model [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] No [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Automatically Identifies your PC's installed devices and drivers that requires updates or New drivers [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Easily Download and Update All Your Device Drivers [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Easy Driver Backup [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Quickly Restore Backed up Drivers [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Online Driver Database [#2 dRIVERCure] Comprehensive [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] 30,000+ drivers supported [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Millions of manufacturer specific and device associated drivers in it's database.

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Integrated Product Help [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] Supports Windows XP / Vista / 7 [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Yes [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [Product Features] OEM match intelligence [#2 dRIVERCure] Yes - Ok [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] No [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Yes - Highly sophisticated

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [#2 dRIVERCure] Try DriverCure Free [#3 DRIVER GENIUS] Try Driver Genius Free [#1 DRIVER SCANNER]

Output: Try Driver Scanner FREE

Driver Update Software Comparison - Choose the Right Driver Update Program Today!


Input: [1] Meats [2] Other [0]

Output: Vegetables


Input: [1] Pepperoni [2] Anchovy [0]

Output: Onion


Input: [1] Sausage [2] Garlic [0]

Output: Pepper


Input: [1] Meatball [0]

Output: Black Olives


Input: [1] Ham [0]

Output: Hot Peppers


Input: [1] Salami [0]

Output: Sweet Peppers


Input: [1] Steak [0]

Output: Green Olives


Input: [1] Hamburg [0]

Output: Mushroom


Input: [1] Chicken [0]

Output: Tomato


Output: Banana Peppers


Input: [System or Appliance:] Inflatable lifejackets [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers' instructions. Annually by accredited service agent ashore [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Certificates on board

Suggested Maintenance Plan for Life Saving Appliances


Input: [System or Appliance:] Inflatable liferafts, boats, rescue boats, marine evacuation systems, RIBs [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers' instructions. Annually by accredited service agent ashore [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: To be clearly marked Certificates on board


Input: [System or Appliance:] Hydrostatic releases [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers' instructions. In accordance with manufacturers expiry date [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: To be clearly marked Certificates on board


Input: [System or Appliance:] Line throwing rockets [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers' instructions. In accordance with manufacturers expiry date [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: To be clearly marked


Input: [System or Appliance:] Man Overboard and other pyrotechnics [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers' instructions. In accordance with manufacturers expiry date [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: To be clearly marked


Input: [System or Appliance:] Batteries for EPIRB, Search and rescue transponder, radio life saving appliances, GMDSS VHF, Immersion Suit [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers instructions. In accordance with manufacturers expiry date [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: To be clearly marked


Input: [System or Appliance:] Launching appliances and on-load release gear [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures Intervals as specified in the instructions for on-board maintenance. [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Service record to be maintained onboard for presentation to authorised Cayman Island Representative


Input: [System or Appliance:] Fall wires [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers instructions end for end at intervals of not more than 30 months, renewed when necessary at intervals of not more than five years, whichever is the earlier [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Service record to be maintained onboard for presentation to authorised Cayman Island Representative


Input: [System or Appliance:] Launching appliances [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers instructions thorough examination at intervals not exceeding 5 years and on completion of the examination be subjected to a dynamic test of the winch brake with a proof load of not less than 1.1 times the maximum working load at maximum lowering speed [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Service record to be maintained onboard, dynamic tests to be witnessed by class or authorised Cayman Island Representative,


Input: [System or Appliance:] Lifeboat on load release gear [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers instructions subjected to a thorough examination and test during the annual cargo ship or passenger ship safety survey; and a load test of 1.1 times the maximum load of the lifeboat whenever the release gear is overhauled, such overhauling and test shall be carried out at least once every five years. [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Service record to be maintained onboard, tests to be witnessed by class or authorised Cayman Island Representative,


Input: [System or Appliance:] Marine Evacuation System [Shipboard Inspection:] In accordance with SMS procedures and manufacturers instructions deployed from the ship on a rotational basis so that each system is deployed at least once every six years [Marking & Documentation:]

Output: Service record to be maintained onboard, tests to be witnessed by class or authorised Cayman Island Representative,


Input: [Required Item] Official Transcript [Submission Method] Regular Mail [Format]

Output: Hard Copy

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Required Item] Letters of Recommendation [Submission Method] Regular Mail or E-mail [Format]

Output: Hard Copy or Electronic

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Required Item] Resume [Submission Method] E-mail* [Format]

Output: Electronic

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Required Item] Veteran's Preference Materials (if any) [Submission Method] Regular Mail or E-mail [Format]

Output: Hard Copy or Electronic

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Required Item] Cover Letter(s) [Submission Method] E-mail* [Format]

Output: Electronic

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Required Item] Position-specific Materials (if any) [Submission Method] E-mail* [Format]

Output: Electronic

Application Process for Graduate Assistantships | University of North Texas Libraries


Input: [Stain] Alcoholic Beverages [Treatment]

Output: Rinse stain immediately with cold water or soak stain 30 minutes in cold water. Apply detergent or dishwashing liquid to any trace of stain while still wet. If safe for the fabric, wash in hot water using chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Baby Food, Formula [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Soak with an enzyme soaking product. Rinse. Wash as usual. If stain remains, apply a pretreat product and wash again.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Blood [Treatment]

Output: Treat stain immediately. Soak 30 minutes or more in cold water. Rub detergent into stain. If stain persists, place a small amount of household ammonia on the stain and rub again with detergent. If safe for fabric, wash in hot water and chlorine bleach if traces of the stain persist.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Candle Wax [Treatment]

Output: Rub with ice and scrape off excess wax. Place stain between paper towels and press with warm iron. Then place stain face down on paper towels and sponge with rubbing alcohol, if safe for fabric (refer to WARNING above). Let dry, wash. If traces of color remain, wash with commercial color remover (Rit, Putnam,* etc.) or, if safe for the fabric, hot water and chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Cheese [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Soak with an enzyme soaking product. If the stain remains, apply a pretreat product. Wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Chewing Gum [Treatment]

Output: Rub with ice and scrape off excess gum. Place face down on paper towels and sponge with a pretreat product.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Chocolate or Cocoa [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Rub detergent into stain and soak in cold water. If greasy stain remains, sponge face down on paper towels with a pretreat product. If traces of the stain remain, wash in hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Coffee, Tea [Treatment]

Output: Soak in cold water. Rub detergent into stain, rinse. If traces of the stain remain, use a pretreat product and wash in warm water, or wash in hot water with chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Copier Toner [Treatment]

Output: Shake off loose powder. Brush stain with toothbrush to remove remaining powder. Sponge stain with soapy water. If stain remains, apply a pretreat product and wash in hot water (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Crayon [Treatment]

Output: Treat the same as candle wax or place face down on paper towel and spray with WD-4O*. Rinse. Wash in hot water (if safe for fabric) using soap (not a detergent) and 1-2 cups baking soda. If stains remain, professional drycleaning may be necessary.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Deodorants and Anti-Perspirants [Treatment]

Output: Some of these products contain substances that can change the color of some dyes. The color can sometimes be restored if the area is sponged with ammonia then rinsed.To remove stains, apply white vinegar. Rub and rinse. If stains remain, rub detergent into stain and wash with hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Dye [Treatment]

Output: Treat with a commercial dye remover (Rit, Putnam*) or, if safe for fabric, bleach with chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Egg, Gravy [Treatment]

Output: If dried, scrape off excess. Soak in cold water. Rub detergent into damp stain and, if safe for fabric, wash in hot water and chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Eye and Face Make-up [Treatment]

Output: Tap on the stain with a spoon to loosen it. Rub dampened stain with bar soap, dishwashing liquid or detergent. If stain remains, soak in water and detergent. Apply a pretreat product and wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Fabric Softener [Treatment]

Output: Dampen stain and rub with bar soap. Wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Felt-Tip Marker [Treatment]

Output: Rub detergent into damp stain. Apply a pretreat product. If safe for fabric, wash in hot water and chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Fruit Juices [Treatment]

Output: Soak in cold water. Wash in hot water with chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Grass [Treatment]

Output: Place face down on paper towel and sponge with rubbing alcohol (if safe for fabric).Rinse. Apply a pretreat product and wash. If stain remains, wash in hot water with chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Grease, Oil [Treatment]

Output: Place face down on paper towel and sponge with a pretreat product. Dampen stain with water and rub with bar soap or detergent. Wash in hot water (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Ink [Treatment]

Output: Saturate the stain with hair spray or place the fabric face down on paper towel and sponge with rubbing alcohol (refer to WARNING on previous page). Rinse. If traces of the stain remain, rub detergent into the dampened stain and wash. Some inks may be impossible to remove.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Iodine [Treatment]

Output: Rinse from the back side of the stain with cold water. Then soak in a commercial color remover (Rit, Putnam*, etc.) or rub in a paste of water and starch. Let stand for 15-30 minutes and wash.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Jam, Jelly [Treatment]

Output: Scrape off excess. Rinse with cold water. Rub dampened stain with detergent. Apply a pretreat product and launder with an enzyme soaking product. If stain remains, sponge with a mild bleach, such as water and white vinegar mix (equal parts) and wash again.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Ketchup, Tomato-Based Products [Treatment]

Output: Scrape off excess. Soak in cold water 30 minutes. Rub detergent into the stain and, if safe for fabric, wash in hot water and chlorine bleach.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Lipstick [Treatment]

Output: Rub dampened stain with bar soap and wash.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Lotion (Hand, Body, Suntan) [Treatment]

Output: Scrape off excess. Blot stain with paper towel. Rub colorless hand dishwashing liquid into stain and let stand several minutes. Rinse. Apply a pretreat product and wash in hot water (if safe for fabric.)

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Mildew [Treatment]

Output: Treat promptly. Mildew damages fabric and sometimes cannot be removed. Wash with chlorine bleach. For items that cannot be washed with chlorine bleach, soak in an all fabric bleach, then wash.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Milk and Milk Products [Treatment]

Output: Soak in cold water. Wash in hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric). Apply a pretreat product, if a stain is noticeable. Rewash.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Mud [Treatment]

Output: Let dry. Scrape off excess. Soak in solution of one quart warm water, half teaspoon liquid hand dishwashing detergent and one tablespoon vinegar for 15 minutes. Rinse. Wash in hot or warm water with enzyme product.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Mustard [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Rub dampened stain with bar soap. Apply a pretreat product. Wash in hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Nail Polish [Treatment]

Output: Place face down on paper towel. Sponge with nail polish remover (non-oily) until stain disappears. Wash. Do not use nail polish remover on Acetate or Arnel fabrics.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Paint [Treatment]

Output: Water-based paint -- Treat by rinsing fabric in cool water while stains are still wet. Wash. To soften dried paint, apply soapy water or an acrylic paint and varnish remover. Rinse and then wash. Oil-based paint -- Pretreat with a solvent recommended on the paint container. If not available, use mineral spirits. Rinse. Pretreat with a stain remover or detergent. Rinse and wash. Be sure to thoroughly rinse to remove all solvents to prevent a possible explosion in washer.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Perspiration [Treatment]

Output: Rub dampened stain with detergent. Wash in hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric). If the fabric is discolored, you can try to restore it by treating fresh stains with ammonia or old stains with vinegar.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Rust [Treatment]

Output: Apply a mild bleach such as lemon juice or a commercial rust remover (Whink, Rit, RoVer*, etc.) Follow manufacturer's directions. Wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Salad Dressing, Mayonnaise [Treatment]

Output: Scrape off excess. Apply a pretreat product. Rub stain with an enzyme soaking product and wash with hot water (if safe for fabric.). Do not leave washer unattended as remaining residue may cause fabric to catch on fire.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Scorching [Treatment]

Output: Wash using hot water and chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric). Fabrics can be damaged by being scorched. If this has happened, you may not be able to remove the marks.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Shoe Polish [Treatment]

Output: Rub dampened stain with detergent. Wash in hot water and chlorine bleach if safe for fabric.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Soft Drinks [Treatment]

Output: Rinse stain with cold water immediately. Wash in warm water and chlorine bleach, if safe for fabric.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Soy Sauce [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Apply a pretreat product. Wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Tobacco [Treatment]

Output: Dampen stain and rub with bar soap. Rinse. If necessary, soak in an all-fabric bleach solution. If stain remains, wash with chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric).

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Toothpaste [Treatment]

Output: Scrape off excess. Blot stain with enzyme soaking product and cold water. Rinse. Wash as usual.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Urine [Treatment]

Output: Rinse with cold water. Soak with an enzyme soaking product. Wash in hot water with chlorine bleach (if safe for fabric). If the color of the fabric has changed, sponging the area with ammonia may restore the color.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Vomit [Treatment]

Output: Soak in a solution of one quart warm water, half teaspoon liquid hand dishwashing detergent, and one tablespoon ammonia (if safe for fabric). Soak 15 minutes. Use sponge to loosen stain. Blot with toweling. Wash in hot water (if safe for fabric) with an enzyme product.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Stain] Wine [Treatment]

Output: Treat immediately. Rinse with cold water or club soda. Rub dampened stain with detergent and let stand several minutes. Apply a pretreat product and wash.

Stain Removal Guide - Speed Queen - Home Laundry Equipment


Input: [Symptoms] Small white spots on fins. Eventually the spots will cover much of the body. Fish will scratch and become listless [Solution] Ich is a common parasite of fish. When fish are chilled or moved they become more susceptible. Ich is easy to cure if you treat daily for at least 3 days. Use Quick Cure. To speed the cure raise the temperature to 80 degrees. [Problem]

Output: Ich


Input: [Symptoms] There are a number of external parasites which may attack the skin, gills, and fins of the fish. Fish which are infected with external parasites will begin to act differently, and may scratch against rocks, or hover near the bottom of the tank. You can suspect a parasite problem if you see any of the following symptoms. White Spots Excessive Gill Movement Red Streaks Excessive Hiding White Film Listlessness [Solution] Raise temperature to 80 degrees, Do a partial water change. Add one of the following: Nox Ich, Goldfix, General Cure Maracide, CopperSafe, Quick Cure Lifeguard Super Ich Cure Notes: The most common parasite of fish is Ich which is highly contagious and causes white spots about the size of a grain of salt to appear on the fins and body. Treat immediately. Treat for at least 3 consecutive days. Repeat if needed. [Problem]

Output: Parasites


Input: [Symptoms] * water is cloudy or hazy * white mold-like growths on rocks, plants * "gooey" pieces of debris cling to gravel * fish become listless, increased chance of fin rot [Solution] Cause: This is the most common problem experienced by beginners. It is usually due to: 1. Overfeeding: We have found that over 80% of cases of cloudy water are due to overfeeding. Decaying food creates a bacterial bloom and clouds the water. 2. New Tank: Cloudy water often occurs for a few days after you first set-up a tank. Maintain normal filtration and the tank will clear on its own. "Brite and Clear" , or "Filter Aid" tonic will speed the clearing. Treatment: Do a partial water change of 25%. Review feeding procedures.. Maintain adequate filtration, and use fresh activated carbon in the filter. Add "Brite and Clear" tonic. [Problem]

Output: Cloudy Water


Input: [Symptoms] loss of color (majority of fish) excessive hiding red streaks darting about fin rot listlessness cloudy eye white film Often several fish die rapidly [Solution] Cause: The most common cause of water quality problems is the buildup of ammonia due to decaying food, overcrowding, or inadequate biological filtration. Ammonia problems also will occur in newly set-up tanks (during the first 3 weeks) if you add to many fish before your biological filter is fully operating. Other causes of water problems include inadequate filtration, improper pH, insufficient aeration, and contamination from paints, sprays, insecticides, or cleansers. Treatment: If you suspect a problem with the water quality first test the pH and ammonia level of your tank. * If ammonia level is high (above 1 ppm.) * If pH is too acid: In all other cases do a partial water change by siphoning 25% of the water from the bottom of the tank. Repeat the partial water change daily until the problem clears. Also check the operation of your filters, and add fresh activated carbon to the filter. Poor water quality can weaken the fish and make them susceptible to bacterial infections. Therefore we often recommend an antibiotic as part of the treatment. Notes: If nearly all of the fish die over a very short period of time it is definitely due to a build-up of a toxin in the water. An infectious disease can be ruled out because they take several days to progress. [Problem]

Output: Poor Water Quality


Input: [Symptoms] You can suspect a bacterial infection if you see any of the following symptoms: Fin Rot Excessive Gill Movement Red Streaks Excessive Hiding White Film Listlessness Open Sores Cloudy Eye Sunken Belly, Bulging Eye (Popeye), Mouth Fungus (Contagious) [Solution] Notes: Most fish have a good natural resistance to bacterial infections, and a healthy fish will often be able to resist an infection on its own. For this reason not all bacterial infections are contagious. Often only the weaker, older, and most susceptible fish will succumb. The best way to prevent bacterial infections is to feed the fish quality foods, and maintain a healthy environment so that their natural resistance will help them fight the infection. Treatment: Raise temperature to 80 degrees, Do a partial water change. Add one of the following antibiotics: * Maracyn ( Fin rot, white growths) * Maracyn II ( Eye cloud, sores, red streaks, popeye, bloat, fin rot) * Furan-2 ( Mouth fungus, fin rot, sores) * Tetracycline ( Hospital tanks, use for serious infections: will discolor water) * Jungle Fungus Eliminator If no response is seen within 4 days, switch to a different medication. Bacterial infections are often associated with external parasites, and a combination treatment for parasites is usually advisable. [Problem]

Output: Bacterial Infections


Input: [Symptoms] White Fuzzy Growths on fish [Solution] Do a partial water change. Add one of the following: Fungus Cure MarOxy (also prevents fungus on eggs) Nox Ich ( has limited affect on fungus) Notes: Usually affects only weak or injured fish. Not contagious. [Problem]

Output: Fungus


Input: [Symptoms] White film on eye [Solution] Can be caused by several factors. Often it is due to a reaction to something in water such as low pH, medication overdose, or poor water quality. Overcrowding, bacterial infections, internal infections, nutritional deficiencies, and old age can also be factors. Treatment: do a 25% water change and check pH. Repeat water change in two days. Add Maracyn II. [Problem]

Output: Cloudy Eye


Input: [Symptoms] fish gradually becomes thin, loss of color, sunken eyes, emaciated stomach, in later stages fish will lie on bottom and may develop sores. [Solution] This is a bacterial infection that usually only affects one or two fish at a time and progresses slowly over a period of several months. If you are certain the problem is not due to inadequate diet isolate the infected fish in a separate tank or fish bowl. Treatment is not always effective, but feed them medicated food exclusively for several weeks. If problem persists over a period of several months clean and disinfect the tank. [Problem]

Output: Inadequate Diet


Input: [Symptoms] White patches on body of black mollies [Solution] This is not a specific disease, but we receive a lot of calls about mollies. Mollies are more prone to skin infections than many other fish. It is not contagious, but can be treated with MarOxy. Also keep them warm (78-82 degrees) and keep at least one teaspoon of salt per 5 gallons. [Problem]

Output: Black Molly Disease


Input: [Symptoms] Fish gasp at surface, death occurs with mouth wide open [Solution] Increase aeration; check filter system. Do not overcrowd. This usually does not occur in filtered aquariums, but is a common problem in goldfish bowls. [Problem]

Output: Lack of Oxygen


Input: [Symptoms] Fish dash wildly about; they may also hover near the surface or remain near the bottom. [Solution] Shock is caused by making an environmental change (such as water change or temperature change) too quickly. Make any change to the fishes environment gradually. [Problem]

Output: Shock


Input: [Symptoms] Fish hides in corner, and in some cases it may hover in a head down position. Fins may appear ragged and scales may be missing. [Solution] Keep only fish of similar size together. Provide adequate hiding spots and feed properly. Check with store personnel regarding compatibility recommendations. In some cases the "bully" fish must be separated from the weaker fish. Large fish can be brought into the store for partial credit towards some other fish. [Problem]

Output: Incompatible Tank Mates


Input: [Symptoms] Newly purchased fish do not adapt well to the tank. In some cases they will hide and will not eat, or hover near the surface. Loss of one or more fish occurs within a few days of purchase. [Solution] When a fish is transferred from one tank to another, there is a certain amount of stress involved and some fish may not be able to adapt. The loss of one or two fish out of a group is not normal, but if it occurs it does not necessarily indicate a serious problem. (Check our guarantee policy for partial replacement). Keep a close eye on the other fish for a few days. If you are having problems with new fish, we also suggest that only the more hardy fish be purchased for a while. [Problem]

Output: Problems with Newly Purchased Fish


Input: [Symptoms] One fish dies showing no symptoms. All other fish remain healthy [Solution] It is often difficult to pinpoint the cause of a problem when only one fish is affected, particularly if it showed no symptoms before death. The cause can be any of a number of factors including an internal infection, worms, bacterial infection, malnutrition, or old age. In most cases there is nothing special that should be done. Keep a close eye on the other fish and if they begin to show any symptoms of disease do a partial water change and treat accordingly. Most of the time it will not be contagious. [Problem]

Output: One fish dies in a healthy tank


Input: [Symptoms] Fish becomes listless, lies on bottom, sometimes belly becomes very thin, and bent spine occurs. [Solution] As a general rule, the smaller fish such as tetras, mollies, guppies, neons, swordtails, will live no more than 3 years. Some of the larger fish such as cichlids, angels, goldfish, can live 5 years or more. [Problem]

Output: Old Age