This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for hearing under the following statutory provisions:, (a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)); , (b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));, (c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company;, (d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the Board is the appropriate agency;, (e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the Board against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which the Board is the appropriate agency for any violation of: , (1) Any provision of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (“BHC Act”), or any order or regulation issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1847(b) and (d); , (2) Sections 19, 22, 23, 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505; , (3) Section 9 of the FRA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 324; , (4) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F); , (5) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16); , (6) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909; , (7) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108; , (8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);, (9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;, (10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the Board, the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the Board in connection with the grant of an application or request, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty or law or regulation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);, (11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;, (12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder; , (13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464 (d), (s) and (v);, (14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and, (15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a (i) and (r);, (f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g)); , (g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the special post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and , (h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.


Except with respect to records routinely made available under § 792.02 or published in the <E T="04">Federal Register, or to the extent that records are exempt under the FOIA, if you make a request for records in accordance with this subpart, NCUA will make such records available to you, including records maintained in electronic format, as long as you agree to pay the actual, direct costs.

CHAPTER VII - NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION

SUBCHAPTER B - REGULATIONS AFFECTING THE OPERATIONS OF THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION

PART 792 - REQUESTS FOR INFORMATION UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT AND PRIVACY ACT, AND BY SUBPOENA; SECURITY PROCEDURES FOR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION


The board of directors of a credit union is responsible for establishing a vital records preservation program within 6 months after its insurance certificate is issued. The program must be in writing and contain procedures for maintaining duplicate vital records at a vital records center. The procedures must include: designated staff responsible for vital records preservation, a schedule for the storage and destruction of records, and a records preservation log detailing for each record stored, its name, storage location, storage date, and name of the person sending the record for storage. It is recommended credit unions include in these procedures a method for using duplicate records to restore vital member services in the event of catastrophic act. Credit unions which have some or all of their records maintained by an off-site data processor are considered to be in compliance for the storage of those records if the service agreement specifies the data processor safeguards against the simultaneous destruction of production and back-up information.

SUBCHAPTER A - REGULATIONS AFFECTING CREDIT UNIONS

PART 749 - RECORDS PRESERVATION PROGRAM AND APPENDICES - RECORD RETENTION GUIDELINES; CATASTROPHIC ACT PREPAREDNESS GUIDELINES

§ 749.2   Vital records preservation program.


(a) This part does not expand the powers and authorities of any state-chartered corporate credit union, beyond those powers and authorities provided under the laws of the state in which it was chartered. , (b) A state-chartered corporate credit union that is not insured by the NCUSIF, but that receives funds from federally insured credit unions, is considered an “institution-affiliated party” within the meaning of Section 206(r) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1786(r). , (c) NCUA will notify, consult with, and provide explanation to the appropriate state supervisory authority before taking administrative action against a state-chartered corporate credit union.

§ 704.17   State-chartered corporate credit unions.


(a) Standards for programs. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Act and this regulation permit a creditor to extend special purpose credit to applicants who meet eligibility requirements under the following types of credit programs:, (1) Any credit assistance program expressly authorized by federal or state law for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons;, (2) Any credit assistance program offered by a not-for-profit organization, as defined under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, for the benefit of its members or for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons; or, (3) Any special purpose credit program offered by a for-profit organization, or in which such an organization participates to meet special social needs, if:, (i) The program is established and administered pursuant to a written plan that identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit and sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit pursuant to the program; and, (ii) The program is established and administered to extend credit to a class of persons who, under the organization's customary standards of creditworthiness, probably would not receive such credit or would receive it on less favorable terms than are ordinarily available to other applicants applying to the organization for a similar type and amount of credit., (b) Rules in other sections - (1) General applicability. All the provisions of this regulation apply to each of the special purpose credit programs described in paragraph (a) of this section except as modified by this section., (2) Common characteristics. A program described in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section qualifies as a special purpose credit program only if it was established and is administered so as not to discriminate against an applicant on any prohibited basis; however, all program participants may be required to share one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) so long as the program was not established and is not administered with the purpose of evading the requirements of the Act or this regulation., (c) Special rule concerning requests and use of information. If participants in a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section are required to possess one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) and if the program otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a creditor may request and consider information regarding the common characteristic(s) in determining the applicant's eligibility for the program., (d) Special rule in the case of financial need. If financial need is one of the criteria under a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section, the creditor may request and consider, in determining an applicant's eligibility for the program, information regarding the applicant's marital status; alimony, child support, and separate maintenance income; and the spouse's financial resources. In addition, a creditor may obtain the signature of an applicant's spouse or other person on an application or credit instrument relating to a special purpose credit program if the signature is required by federal or state law.

SUBCHAPTER A - BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM

PART 202 - EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT (REGULATION B)

§ 202.8   Special purpose credit programs.


Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 252.2 of this part and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 252.2. For purposes of this subpart:, (a) Adjusted market value means:, (1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered company to a counterparty, the sum of:, (i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and, (ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132); and, (2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered company from a counterparty:, (i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus, (ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132)., (3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), the covered company would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132) by the square root of 1/2., (b) Affiliate means, with respect to a company:, (1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or, (2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied., (c) Aggregate net credit exposure means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart., (d) Bank-eligible investments means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1., (e) Counterparty means, with respect to a credit transaction:, (1) With respect to a natural person, the natural person, and, if the credit exposure of the covered company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively;, (2) With respect to any company that is not a subsidiary of the covered company, the company and its affiliates collectively;, (3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;, (4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D), the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision) collectively; and, (5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively.1<FTREF/>, 1 In addition, under § 252.76, under certain circumstances, a covered company is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart., (f) Covered company is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(i) of this subpart., (g) Credit derivative has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (h) Credit transaction means, with respect to a counterparty:, (1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;, (2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;, (3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;, (4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;, (5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;, (6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty;, (7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and, (8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation or order, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart., (i) Depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c))., (j) Derivative transaction means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets., (k) Eligible collateral means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered company has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:, (1) Cash on deposit with the covered company or a subsidiary of the covered company (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered company by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);, (2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;, (3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;, (4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company; or, (5) Gold bullion., (l) Eligible credit derivative means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:, (1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;, (2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;, (3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:, (i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and, (ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;, (4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;, (5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;, (6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and, (7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event., (m) Eligible equity derivative means an equity derivative, provided that:, (1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;, (2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and, (3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract., (n) Eligible guarantee has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (o) Eligible guarantor has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (p) Equity derivative has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (q) Exempt counterparty means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 252.77, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D)., (r) Financial entity means:, (1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;, (ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));, (iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:, (A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;, (B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;, (iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.);, (v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));, (vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;, (vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));, (viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);, (ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;, (x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and, (xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (r)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and, (2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank., (s) Foreign sovereign entity means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank collectively., (t) Gross credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered company before adjusting, pursuant to § 252.74, for the effect of any eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit., (u) Immediate family means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home., (v) Intraday credit exposure means credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States., (w) Investment grade has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (x) Major counterparty means any counterparty that is or includes:, (1) A major covered company;, (2) A top-tier foreign banking organization that meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5); or, (3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board., (y) Major covered company is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(ii) of this subpart., (z) Multilateral development bank has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (aa) Net credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 252.73, as adjusted in accordance with § 252.74., (bb) Qualifying central counterparty has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (cc) Qualifying master netting agreement has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2)., (dd) Securities financing transaction means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction., (ee) Short sale means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller., (ff) Sovereign entity means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality., (gg) Subsidiary. A company is a subsidiary of another company if:, (1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or, (2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (gg)(1) of this definition, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied., (hh) Tier 1 capital means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) and as reported by the bank holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C report on a consolidated basis., (ii) Total consolidated assets. A company's total consolidated assets are determined based on:, (1) The average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or, (2) If the bank holding company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable.

CHAPTER II - FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED)

SUBCHAPTER A - BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED)

PART 252 - ENHANCED PRUDENTIAL STANDARDS (REGULATION YY)


A federally insured credit union must not make or agree to make any golden parachute payment, except as permitted by this part.

PART 750 - GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS

§ 750.2   Golden parachute payments prohibited.


(a) Under § 225.28(b)(12) of Regulation Y, a bank holding company may, in accordance with the provisions of § 225.23 or § 225.24, engage in “making equity and debt investments in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare, such as the economic rehabilitation and development of low-income areas.” The Board included that activity among those the Board has determined to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as be a proper incident thereto, in order to permit bank holding companies to fulfill their civic responsibilities. As indicated hereinafter in this interpretation, the Board intends § 225.28(b)(12) to enable bank holding companies to take an active role in the quest for solutions to the Nation's social problems. Although the interpretation primarily focuses on low- and moderate-income housing, it is not intended to limit projects under § 225.28(b)(12) to that area. Other investments primarily designed to promote community welfare are considered permissible, but have not been defined in order to provide bank holding companies flexibility in approaching community problems. For example, bank holding companies may utilize this flexibility to provide new and creative approaches to the promotion of employment opportunities for low-income persons. Bank holding companies possess a unique combination of financial and managerial resources making them particularly suited for a meaningful and substantial role in remedying our social ills. Section 225.28(b)(12) is intended to provide an opportunity for them to assume such a role. , (b) Under the authority of § 225.28(b)(12), a bank holding company may invest in community development corporations established pursuant to Federal or State law. A bank holding company may also participate in other civic projects, such as a municipal parking facility sponsored by a local civic organization as a means to promote greater public use of the community's facilities. , (c) Within the category of permissible investments under § 225.28(b)(12) are investments in projects to construct or rehabilitate multifamily low- or moderate-income housing with respect to which a mortgage is insured under section 221(d)(3), 221(d)(4), or 236 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701) and investments in projects to construct or rehabilitate low- or moderate-income housing which is financed or assisted by direct loan, tax abatement, or insurance under provisions of State or local law, similar to the aforementioned Federal programs, provided that, with respect to all such projects the owner is, by statute, regulation, or regulatory authority, limited as to the rate of return on his investment in the project, as to rentals or occupancy charges for units in the project, and in such other respects as would be a “limited dividend corporation” (as defined by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development). , (d) Investments in other projects that may be considered to be designed primarily to promote community welfare include but are not limited to: (1) Projects for the construction or rehabilitation of housing for the benefit of persons of low- or moderate-income, (2) projects for the construction or rehabilitation of ancillary local commercial facilities necessary to provide goods or services principally to persons residing in low- or moderate-income housing, and (3) projects designed explicitly to create improved job opportunities for low- or moderate-income groups (for example, minority equity investments, on a temporary basis, in small or medium-sized locally-controlled businesses in low-income urban or other economically depressed areas). In the case of de novo projects, the copy of the notice with respect to such other projects which is to be furnished to Reserve Banks in accordance with the provisions of § 225.23 or § 225.24 should be accompanied by a memorandum which demonstrates that such projects meet the objectives of § 225.28(b)(12). , (e) Investments in corporations or projects organized to build or rehabilitate high-income housing, or commercial, office, or industrial facilities that are not designed explicitly to create improved job opportunities for low-income persons shall be presumed not to be designed primarily to promote community welfare, unless there is substantial evidence to the contrary, even though to some extent the investment may benefit the community. , (f) Section 6 of the Depository Institutions Disaster Relief Act of 1992 permits state member banks (12 U.S.C. 338a) and national banks (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)) to invest in the stock of community development corporations that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare of low- and moderate-income communities and persons in the areas of housing, services and employment. The Board and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency have adopted rules that permit state member banks and national banks to make certain investments without prior approval. The Board believes that these rules are consistent with the Board's interpretation of, and decisions regarding, the scope of community welfare activities permissible for bank holding companies. Accordingly, approval received by a bank holding company to conduct activities designed to promote the community welfare under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) and § 225.28(b)(12) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)(12)) includes approval to engage, either directly or through a subsidiary, in the following activities, up to five percent of the bank holding company's total consolidated capital stock and surplus, without additional Board or Reserve Bank approval: , (1) Invest in and provide financing to a corporation or project or class of corporations or projects that the Board previously has determined is a public welfare project pursuant to paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a); , (2) Invest in and provide financing to a corporation or project that the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency previously has determined, by order or regulation, is a public welfare investment pursuant to section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)); , (3) Invest in and provide financing to a community development financial institution pursuant to section 103(5) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)); , (4) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, rehabilitate, manage, sell, and rent residential property if a majority of the units will be occupied by low- and moderate-income persons or if the property is a “qualified low-income building” as defined in section 42(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42(c)(2)); , (5) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, rehabilitate, manage, sell, and rent nonresidential real property or other assets located in a low- or moderate-income area provided the property is used primarily for low- and moderate-income persons; , (6) Invest in and provide financing to one or more small businesses located in a low- or moderate-income area to stimulate economic development; , (7) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, and otherwise assist job training or placement facilities or programs designed primarily for low- and moderate-income persons; , (8) Invest in and provide financing to an entity located in a low- or moderate-income area if that entity creates long-term employment opportunities, a majority of which (based on full time equivalent positions) will be held by low- and moderate-income persons; and , (9) Provide technical assistance, credit counseling, research, and program development assistance to low- and moderate-income persons, small businesses, or nonprofit corporations to help achieve community development. , (g) For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, low- and moderate-income persons or areas means individuals and communities whose incomes do not exceed 80 percent of the median income of the area involved, as determined by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. Small businesses are businesses that are smaller than the maximum size eligibility standards established by the Small Business Administration (SBA) for the Small Business Investment Company and Development Company Programs or the SBA section 7A loan program; and specifically include those businesses that are majority-owned by members of minority groups or by women. , (h) For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, five percent of the total consolidated capital stock and surplus of a bank holding company includes its total investment in projects described in paragraph (f) of this section, when aggregated with similar types of investments made by depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company. The term total consolidated capital stock and surplus of the bank holding company means total equity capital and the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, based on the bank holding company's most recent FR Y-9C (Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies) or FR Y-9SP (Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Small Holding Companies).

PART 225 - BANK HOLDING COMPANIES AND CHANGE IN BANK CONTROL (REGULATION Y)

§ 225.127   Investment in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare.


(a) Notice by publication. Promptly after its appointment as receiver for a covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall publish a notice to the creditors of the covered financial company to file their claims with the receiver no later than the claims bar date. The Corporation as receiver shall republish such notice 1 month and 2 months, respectively, after the date the notice is first published. The notice to creditors shall be published in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the covered financial company has its principal place or places of business. In addition to such publication in a newspaper, the Corporation as receiver may post the notice on the FDIC's Web site at www.fdic.gov., (b) Notice by mailing. At the time of the first publication of the notice to creditors, the Corporation as receiver shall mail a notice to present claims no later than the claims bar date to any creditor shown in the books and records of the covered financial company. Such notice shall be sent to the last known address of the creditor appearing in the books and records or appearing in any claim found in the records of the covered financial company., (c) Notice by electronic media. After publishing and mailing notice as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Corporation as receiver may communicate by electronic media with any claimant who expressly agrees to such form of communication., (d) Discovered claimants. Upon discovery of the name and address of a claimant not appearing in the books and records of the covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall, not later than 30 days after the discovery of such name and address, mail a notice to such claimant to file a claim no later than the claims bar date. Any claimant not appearing on the books and records that is discovered before the claims bar date shall be required to file a claim before the claims bar date, subject to the exception of § 380.35(b)(2). If a claimant not appearing on the books and records is discovered after the claims bar date, the Corporation as receiver shall notify the claimant to file a claim by a date not later than 90 days from the date appearing on the notice that is mailed to such creditor. Any claim filed after such date shall be disallowed, and such disallowance shall be final.

CHAPTER III - FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION (CONTINUED)

SUBCHAPTER B - REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY (CONTINUED)

PART 380 - ORDERLY LIQUIDATION AUTHORITY


Depending on your identity and the purpose of your request, the FCA may charge you the direct costs of searching for responsive records, reviewing the records, and reproducing them. If necessary, we will seek clarification before classifying the request., (a) Educational institutions and noncommercial scientific institutions. We charge fees for reproduction costs only. The first 100 pages are free. You must show that the request is sanctioned by an educational or noncommercial scientific institution and that you seek the records for scholarly or scientific research, not for a commercial use., (b) Representatives of the news media. We charge fees for reproduction costs only. The first 100 pages are free. You must be a representative of the news media, and the request must not be made for a commercial use. A request for records supporting news distribution is not a request for a commercial use., (c) Commercial use. We charge the direct cost for search, review, and reproduction. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to free search time or free reproduction. We will charge you even if we do not disclose any records., (d) All others. The first 2 hours of search time and the first 100 pages of reproduction are free. After that, we will charge you for search and reproduction costs. We will charge you for a search even if we do not disclose any records., (e) Fee table. The fee information in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section is presented in the table to this paragraph. You may apply for a waiver if your request is not mostly in your commercial interest and the disclosure is in the public interest. See § 602.13.,
Fee Table,
1 You are responsible for fees even if we do not disclose any records.

SUBCHAPTER A - ADMINISTRATIVE PROVISIONS


If the FDIC receives a debtor's written request for hearing after 15 business days of the date the FDIC mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, the FDIC shall provide a hearing to the debtor. However, the FDIC will not delay issuance of a withholding order unless it determines that the untimely filing of the request was caused by factors over which the debtor had no control, or the FDIC receives information that the FDIC believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order.

CHAPTER III - FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION

SUBCHAPTER A - PROCEDURE AND RULES OF PRACTICE

PART 313 - PROCEDURES FOR COLLECTION OF CORPORATE DEBT, CRIMINAL RESTITUTION DEBT, AND CIVIL MONEY PENALTY DEBT

§ 313.85   Failure to timely request a hearing.


(a) Evaluation of compliance. In determining whether an Enterprise has complied with the duty to serve each underserved market, FHFA will annually evaluate and rate the Enterprise's duty to serve performance based on the Enterprise's implementation of its Underserved Markets Plan during the relevant evaluation year. FHFA's evaluation will be in accordance with separate, FHFA-prepared Evaluation Guidance as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section., (b) Evaluation areas. As provided in § 1282.32(f), an Enterprise must specify in its Plan the evaluation area under which each Plan objective will be evaluated. FHFA will evaluate an Enterprise's performance of each of its Plan objectives under one of the following four evaluation areas, as designated by the Enterprise in its Plan:, (1) Outreach. The extent of the Enterprise's outreach to qualified loan sellers and other market participants in each underserved market;, (2) Loan product. The Enterprise's development of loan products, more flexible underwriting guidelines, and other innovative approaches to providing financing in each underserved market;, (3) Loan purchase. The volume of loan purchases by the Enterprise in each underserved market relative to the market opportunities available to the Enterprise; and, (4) Investments and grants. The amount of the Enterprise's investments and grants in projects that assist in meeting the needs of each underserved market., (c) Evaluation process. At the end of each evaluation year, FHFA will evaluate each Enterprise's performance under its Plan based on quantitative and qualitative assessments of the Enterprise's accomplishment of the objectives for the activities under each underserved market in its Plan. Following the quantitative and qualitative assessments, FHFA may provide extra credit for extra credit-eligible residential economic diversity activities in an underserved market in a Plan, and for other extra credit-eligible activities in an underserved market in a Plan as may be designated by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance., (1) Quantitative assessment. FHFA will conduct a quantitative assessment which will evaluate the level of an Enterprise's accomplishment of each objective for each activity in an underserved market in its Plan, based on the level of accomplishment needed for the objectives in order to receive a passing rating for compliance with the Duty to Serve an underserved market in a Plan, as established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance. At the conclusion of the quantitative assessment for an underserved market in a Plan, FHFA will determine whether an Enterprise has passed or failed the required level of accomplishment., (2) Qualitative assessment. FHFA will conduct a qualitative assessment which will evaluate the Enterprise's accomplishment of each objective for each activity in an underserved market in its Plan, based on the method and criteria established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance, such as how skillfully an objective was implemented, the impact of the objective, and such other criteria as FHFA may set forth in the Evaluation Guidance., (3) Extra credit-eligible activities. FHFA may provide extra credit for extra credit-eligible residential economic diversity activities included in an underserved market in a Plan, and for other extra credit-eligible activities included in an underserved market in a Plan, where such other activities are designated by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance. FHFA will conduct its assessment of an Enterprise's accomplishment of activities that are eligible for extra credit based on the method and criteria established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance, such as how skillfully an objective was implemented, the impact of the objective, and such other criteria as FHFA may set forth in the Evaluation Guidance., (4) Ratings. - (i) Assignment of ratings. Based on the quantitative, qualitative and extra credit assessments, FHFA will assign a rating of Exceeds, High Satisfactory, Low Satisfactory, Minimally Passing, or Fails to the Enterprise's performance for each underserved market in its Plan. A rating of Exceeds, High Satisfactory, Low Satisfactory, or Minimally Passing will constitute compliance by the Enterprise with the duty to serve that underserved market. A rating of Fails will constitute noncompliance by the Enterprise with the duty to serve that underserved market., (ii) Ongoing Assessment of Evaluation and Rating Process. FHFA will make such determinations as appropriate based on evaluation of the program's parameters and operation, pursuant to the Evaluation Guidance, regarding implementation of the evaluation and rating process., (d) Evaluation Guidance. - (1) Three-year term. FHFA will prepare Evaluation Guidance for use by both Enterprises for a three-year term., (2) Contents. The Evaluation Guidance will include the information required under this subpart, as well as additional guidance on Enterprise Plans, how the quantitative and qualitative assessments will be conducted, the role of extra credit, how final ratings will be determined, and other matters as may be appropriate., (3) Timelines for Evaluation Guidance. - (i) For the first Plan. - (A) FHFA will provide to the Enterprises the proposed Evaluation Guidance for the first Plan within 30 days after the posting of this subpart on FHFA's Web site. FHFA will post the proposed Evaluation Guidance on FHFA's Web site as soon as practicable after providing it to the Enterprises., (B) The proposed Evaluation Guidance will be available for public input for a period of 120 days following its posting on FHFA's Web site., (C) FHFA will provide the Evaluation Guidance to the Enterprises no later than the time FHFA provides comments to the Enterprises on their proposed Plans., (ii) For subsequent Plans. FHFA will provide timelines for the Evaluation Guidance for subsequent Plans after the first Plan, including public input periods, 300 days before the termination date of the Plan in effect, or a later date if additional time is necessary., (4) Posting of Evaluation Guidance. The final Evaluation Guidance will be posted on the Enterprises' and FHFA's respective Web sites as soon as practicable after the Evaluation Guidance is finalized., (5) Modification of Evaluation Guidance. From time to time, FHFA may modify the Evaluation Guidance prior to or during the Evaluation Guidance's three-year term. FHFA may seek public input on proposed modifications to the Evaluation Guidance if FHFA determines that public input would assist its consideration of the proposed modifications. Modified Evaluation Guidance will be effective on January 1 of the year after the modified Evaluation Guidance is posted. FHFA will post the modified Evaluation Guidance on FHFA's Web site as soon as practicable after modified.

CHAPTER XII - FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY

SUBCHAPTER E - HOUSING GOALS AND MISSION

PART 1282 - ENTERPRISE HOUSING GOALS AND MISSION

§ 1282.36   Evaluations, ratings, and Evaluation Guidance.


(a)(1) The maximum amount of allowable deductible is computed based on a federally insured credit union's asset size and capital level, as follows:, (2) The deductibles may apply to one or more insurance clauses in a policy. Any deductibles in excess of the above amounts must receive the prior written permission of the NCUA Board., (b) A deductible may not exceed 10 percent of a federally insured credit union's Regular Reserve unless a separate Contingency Reserve is set up for the excess. In computing the maximum deductible, valuation accounts such as the allowance for loan losses cannot be considered., (c) A federally insured credit union that has received a composite CAMEL rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classification of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters is eligible to qualify for a deductible in excess of $200,000. The federally insured credit union's eligibility is determined based on it having assets in excess of $1 million as reflected in its most recent year-end 5300 call report. A federally insured credit union that previously qualified for a deductible in excess of $200,000, but that subsequently fails to qualify based on its most recent year-end 5300 call report because either its assets have decreased or it no longer meets the capital requirements of this paragraph or fails to meet the CAMEL rating requirements of this paragraph as determined by its most recent examination report, must obtain the coverage otherwise required by paragraph (b) of this section within 30 days of filing its year-end call report and must notify the appropriate NCUA regional office in writing of its changed status and confirm that it has obtained the required coverage.

PART 713 - FIDELITY BOND AND INSURANCE COVERAGE FOR FEDERALLY INSURED CREDIT UNIONS

§ 713.6   What is the permissible deductible?


(a) Appointment. (1) Each Bank's board of directors shall appoint an Advisory Council of 7 to 15 persons who reside in the Bank's district and are drawn from community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting low- and moderate-income housing, and community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting community lending, in the district. Community organizations include for-profit organizations., (2) Each Bank shall solicit nominations for membership on the Advisory Council from community and not-for-profit organizations pursuant to a nomination process that is as broad and as participatory as possible, allowing sufficient time for responses., (3) The Bank's board of directors shall appoint Advisory Council members from a diverse range of organizations so that representatives of no one group constitute an undue proportion of the membership of the Advisory Council, giving consideration to the size of the Bank's district and the diversity of low- and moderate-income housing and community lending needs and activities within the district., (b) Terms of Advisory Council members. Pursuant to policies adopted by the Bank's board of directors, Advisory Council members shall be appointed by the Bank's board of directors to serve for terms of three years, which shall be staggered to provide continuity in experience and service to the Advisory Council, except that Advisory Council members may be appointed to serve for terms of one or two years solely for purposes of reconfiguring the staggering of the three-year terms. No Advisory Council member may be appointed to serve for more than three full consecutive terms. An Advisory Council member appointed to fill a vacancy shall be appointed for the unexpired term of his or her predecessor in office., (c) Election of officers. Each Advisory Council shall elect from among its members a chairperson, a vice chairperson, and any other officers the Advisory Council deems appropriate., (d) Duties - (1) Meetings with the Banks. (i) The Advisory Council shall meet with representatives of the Bank's board of directors at least quarterly to provide advice on ways in which the Bank can better carry out its housing finance and community lending mission, including, but not limited to, advice on the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending programs and needs in the Bank's district, and on the use of AHP subsidies, Bank advances, and other Bank credit products for these purposes., (ii) The Advisory Council's advice shall include recommendations on:, (A) The Bank's Targeted Community Lending Plan, and any amendments thereto, pursuant to 12 CFR 1290.6(a)(5)(iii);, (B) The amount of AHP funds to be allocated to the Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, including how the set-aside funds should be apportioned under the one-third funding allocation requirement in § 1291.12(b);, (C) The AHP Implementation Plan and any subsequent amendments thereto;, (D) The Bank's scoring methodologies, related definitions, and any additional optional district eligibility requirements for the General Fund and any Targeted Funds; and, (E) The eligibility requirements and any priority criteria for any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs., (2) Summary of AHP applications. The Bank shall comply with requests from the Advisory Council for summary information regarding AHP applications from prior funding rounds., (3) Annual analysis; public access. (i) Each Advisory Council annually shall submit to FHFA by May 1 its analysis of the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending activity of the Bank by which it is appointed., (ii) Within 30 days after the date the Advisory Council's annual analysis is submitted to FHFA, the Bank shall publish the analysis on its publicly available website., (e) Expenses. The Bank shall pay Advisory Council members' travel expenses, including transportation and subsistence, for each day devoted to attending meetings with representatives of the board of directors of the Bank and meetings requested by FHFA., (f) No delegation. A Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to appoint persons as members of the Advisory Council or to meet with the Advisory Council at the quarterly meetings required by the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)).

PART 1291 - FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANKS' AFFORDABLE HOUSING PROGRAM


(a) No transitions for certain Board-regulated institutions. A Board-regulated institution that is subject to the minimum liquidity standards and other requirements of this part immediately prior to December 31, 2019 must comply with the requirements of this part as of December 31, 2019., (b) Transitions for certain U.S. intermediate holding companies. A U.S. intermediate holding company that initially becomes subject to this part on December 31, 2019 does not need to comply with the minimum liquidity standard of § 249.10 or with the public disclosure requirements of § 249.90 until December 31, 2020, at which time the U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the minimum liquidity standard of § 249.10 each business day (or, in the case of a Category IV Board-regulated institution, on the last business day of the applicable calendar month) in accordance with this part, and with the public disclosure requirements of § 249.90., (c) Initial application. (1) A Board-regulated institution that initially becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) after December 31, 2019, must comply with the requirements of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this part, except that a Board-regulated institution that is not a Category IV Board-regulated institution must:, (i) For the first two calendar quarters after the Board-regulated institution begins complying with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio monthly, on each calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month; and, (ii) Beginning the first day of the fifth calendar quarter after the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part and continuing thereafter, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio on each calculation date., (2) A Board-regulated institution that becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 249.1(b)(1)(iii) must comply with the requirements of this part subject to a transition period specified by the Board., (d) Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage. (1) A Board-regulated institution whose outflow adjustment percentage changes is subject to transition periods as set forth in § 249.30(d)., (2) A Board-regulated institution that is no longer subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part pursuant to § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, instructions to the FR Y-9LP or the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with this part as of the first day of the first quarter after it is no longer subject to § 249.1(b)., (e) Reservation of authority. The Board may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the Board determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the Board will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the Board-regulated institution is taking to come into compliance with this part.

PART 249 - LIQUIDITY RISK MEASUREMENT, STANDARDS, AND MONITORING (REGULATION WW)


(a) Purpose. This part establishes a minimum liquidity standard and a minimum stable funding standard for certain FDIC-supervised institutions on a consolidated basis, as set forth herein., (b) Applicability. (1) An FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the minimum liquidity standard, minimum stable funding standard, and other requirements of this part if: , (i) It is a:, (A) GSIB depository institution supervised by the FDIC;, (B) Category II FDIC-supervised institution; or, (C) Category III FDIC-supervised institution; or, (ii) The FDIC has determined that application of this part is appropriate in light of the FDIC-supervised institution's asset size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, affiliation with foreign or domestic covered entities, or risk to the financial system., (2) This part does not apply to:, (i) A bridge financial company as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(3), or a subsidiary of a bridge financial company;, (ii) A new depository institution or a bridge depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(i); or, (iii) An insured branch., (3) In making a determination under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the FDIC will apply, as appropriate, notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures set forth in 12 CFR 324.5.

SUBCHAPTER B - REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY

PART 329 - LIQUIDITY RISK MEASUREMENT STANDARDS


(a) Netting arrangements. (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § .3 using an initial margin model as described in § 1221.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 1221.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection., (2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this part on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section., (3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this part and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this part., (ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 1221.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this part. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this part., (4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 1221.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to post margin., (b) Minimum transfer amount. Notwithstanding § 1221.3 or § 1221.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this part with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this part to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000., (c) Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements. A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 1221.3, § 1221.4, or § 1221.6(e) if:, (1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and, (2) The covered swap entity has:, (i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of FHFA that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or, (ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.

PART 1221 - MARGIN AND CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS FOR COVERED SWAP ENTITIES

§ 1221.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.


(a) By FDIC. (1) Within 20 days after service of an application, counsel for the FDIC may file with the Administrative Officer and serve on all parties an answer to the application. Unless counsel for the FDIC requests and is granted an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under § 308.179, failure to file an answer within the 20-day period will be treated as a consent to the award requested. , (2) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the FDIC's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the answer shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180. , (b) Reply to answer. The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(1), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the position of the FDIC was substantially justified, that the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(4), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, that the FDIC's demand is reasonable when compared to the decision of the administrative law judge or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The reply shall be filed within 15 days after service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the reply shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180., (c) By other parties. Any party to the adversary adjudication, other than the applicant and the FDIC, may file comments on an application within 20 days after service of the application. If the applicant is entitled to file a reply to the FDIC's answer under paragraph (b) of this section, another party may file comments on the answer within 15 days after service of the answer. A commenting party may not participate in any further proceedings on the application unless the administrative law judge determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit additional exploration of matters raised in the comments. , (d) Additional response. Additional filings in the nature of pleadings may be submitted only by leave of the administrative law judge.

PART 308 - RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE


(a) Initial review. The Special Counsel shall review all appeals filed with the Secretary of the Board for conformance with the rules set forth in this subpart, including deadlines for submission of an appeal. The Special Counsel shall also make an evaluation concerning whether an appeal is moot or is otherwise not in good order, and shall make a recommendation for the disposition of all such appeals to the Board. The Special Counsel shall have the authority to dismiss an appeal upon the request of the petitioner., (b) Supplemental materials. Within 30 calendar days from the date the Secretary of the Board receives an appeal, the Special Counsel may request in writing that the petitioner submit additional evidence in support of the appeal. If additional evidence is requested, the petitioner shall have 30 calendar days from the date of issuance of such request to provide the requested information. Failure by the petitioner to provide such information may result in denial of the petitioner's appeal. The Special Counsel shall have the authority to request additional information from any other relevant source in order to provide the Board with a full and complete administrative record. All requests by the Special Counsel pursuant to this section must be reasonable and designed to facilitate the processing of the appeal, not to delay it.

§ 746.205   Preliminary considerations regarding the appeal.


Any advertising that mentions share or savings account insurance provided by a party other than the NCUA must clearly explain the type and amount of such insurance and the identity of the carrier and must avoid any statement or implication that the carrier is affiliated with the NCUA or the federal government.

PART 740 - ACCURACY OF ADVERTISING AND NOTICE OF INSURED STATUS

§ 740.3   Advertising of excess insurance.


(a) Terms that are set forth in § 217.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 217.2., (b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:, Advanced internal ratings-based (IRB) systems means an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's internal risk rating and segmentation system; risk parameter quantification system; data management and maintenance system; and control, oversight, and validation system for credit risk of wholesale and retail exposures., Advanced systems means an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's advanced IRB systems, operational risk management processes, operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and, to the extent used by the Board-regulated institution, the internal models methodology, advanced CVA approach, double default excessive correlation detection process, and internal models approach (IMA) for equity exposures., Backtesting means the comparison of a Board-regulated institution's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing., Benchmarking means the comparison of a Board-regulated institution's internal estimates with relevant internal and external data or with estimates based on other estimation techniques., Bond option contract means a bond option, bond future, or any other instrument linked to a bond that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risk., Business environment and internal control factors means the indicators of a Board-regulated institution's operational risk profile that reflect a current and forward-looking assessment of the Board-regulated institution's underlying business risk factors and internal control environment., Credit default swap (CDS) means a financial contract executed under standard industry documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time., Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) means the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts., Default - For the purposes of calculating capital requirements under this subpart:, (1) Retail. (i) A retail exposure of a Board-regulated institution is in default if:, (A) The exposure is 180 days past due, in the case of a residential mortgage exposure or revolving exposure;, (B) The exposure is 120 days past due, in the case of retail exposures that are not residential mortgage exposures or revolving exposures; or, (C) The Board-regulated institution has taken a full or partial charge-off, write-down of principal, or material negative fair value adjustment of principal on the exposure for credit-related reasons., (ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, for a retail exposure held by a non-U.S. subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution that is subject to an internal ratings-based approach to capital adequacy consistent with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's “International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A Revised Framework” in a non-U.S. jurisdiction, the Board-regulated institution may elect to use the definition of default that is used in that jurisdiction, provided that the Board-regulated institution has obtained prior approval from the Board to use the definition of default in that jurisdiction., (iii) A retail exposure in default remains in default until the Board-regulated institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on the exposure., (2) Wholesale. (i) A Board-regulated institution's wholesale obligor is in default if:, (A) The Board-regulated institution determines that the obligor is unlikely to pay its credit obligations to the Board-regulated institution in full, without recourse by the Board-regulated institution to actions such as realizing collateral (if held); or, (B) The obligor is past due more than 90 days on any material credit obligation(s) to the Board-regulated institution.29<FTREF/>, 29 Overdrafts are past due once the obligor has breached an advised limit or been advised of a limit smaller than the current outstanding balance., (ii) An obligor in default remains in default until the Board-regulated institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on all exposures of the Board-regulated institution to the obligor (other than exposures that have been fully written-down or charged-off)., Dependence means a measure of the association among operational losses across and within units of measure., Economic downturn conditions means, with respect to an exposure held by the Board-regulated institution, those conditions in which the aggregate default rates for that exposure's wholesale or retail exposure subcategory (or subdivision of such subcategory selected by the Board-regulated institution) in the exposure's national jurisdiction (or subdivision of such jurisdiction selected by the Board-regulated institution) are significantly higher than average., Effective maturity (M) of a wholesale exposure means:, (1) For wholesale exposures other than repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts described in paragraph (2) or (3) of this definition:, (i) The weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the expected contractual cash flows from the exposure, using the undiscounted amounts of the cash flows as weights; or, (ii) The nominal remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the exposure., (2) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement for which the Board-regulated institution does not apply the internal models approach in section 132(d), the weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the individual transactions subject to the qualifying master netting agreement, with the weight of each individual transaction set equal to the notional amount of the transaction., (3) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts for which the Board-regulated institution applies the internal models approach in § 217.132(d), the value determined in § 217.132(d)(4)., Eligible double default guarantor, with respect to a guarantee or credit derivative obtained by a Board-regulated institution, means:, (1) U.S.-based entities. A depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a securities broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act, if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade., (2) Non-U.S.-based entities. A foreign bank, or a non-U.S.-based securities firm if the Board-regulated institution demonstrates that the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions, or securities broker-dealers) if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade., Eligible operational risk offsets means amounts, not to exceed expected operational loss, that:, (1) Are generated by internal business practices to absorb highly predictable and reasonably stable operational losses, including reserves calculated consistent with GAAP; and, (2) Are available to cover expected operational losses with a high degree of certainty over a one-year horizon., Eligible purchased wholesale exposure means a purchased wholesale exposure that:, (1) The Board-regulated institution or securitization SPE purchased from an unaffiliated seller and did not directly or indirectly originate;, (2) Was generated on an arm's-length basis between the seller and the obligor (intercompany accounts receivable and receivables subject to contra-accounts between firms that buy and sell to each other do not satisfy this criterion);, (3) Provides the Board-regulated institution or securitization SPE with a claim on all proceeds from the exposure or a pro rata interest in the proceeds from the exposure;, (4) Has an M of less than one year; and, (5) When consolidated by obligor, does not represent a concentrated exposure relative to the portfolio of purchased wholesale exposures., Expected exposure (EE) means the expected value of the probability distribution of non-negative credit risk exposures to a counterparty at any specified future date before the maturity date of the longest term transaction in the netting set. Any negative fair values in the probability distribution of fair values to a counterparty at a specified future date are set to zero to convert the probability distribution of fair values to the probability distribution of credit risk exposures., Expected operational loss (EOL) means the expected value of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system using a one-year horizon., Expected positive exposure (EPE) means the weighted average over time of expected (non-negative) exposures to a counterparty where the weights are the proportion of the time interval that an individual expected exposure represents. When calculating risk-based capital requirements, the average is taken over a one-year horizon., Exposure at default (EAD) means:, (1) For the on-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, a cleared transaction, or default fund contribution), EAD means the Board-regulated institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure or segment less any allocated transfer risk reserve for the exposure or segment., (2) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the Board-regulated institution's best estimate of net additions to the outstanding amount owed the Board-regulated institution, including estimated future additional draws of principal and accrued but unpaid interest and fees, that are likely to occur over a one-year horizon assuming the wholesale exposure or the retail exposures in the segment were to go into default. This estimate of net additions must reflect what would be expected during economic downturn conditions. For the purposes of this definition:, (i) Trade-related letters of credit are short-term, self-liquidating instruments that are used to finance the movement of goods and are collateralized by the underlying goods., (ii) Transaction-related contingencies relate to a particular transaction and include, among other things, performance bonds and performance-based letters of credit., (3) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction, or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of anything other than a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the notional amount of the exposure or segment., (4) EAD for OTC derivative contracts is calculated as described in § 217.132. A Board-regulated institution also may determine EAD for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans as described in § 217.132., Exposure category means any of the wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure categories., External operational loss event data means, with respect to a Board-regulated institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at organizations other than the Board-regulated institution., IMM exposure means a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative for which a Board-regulated institution calculates its EAD using the internal models methodology of § 217.132(d)., Internal operational loss event data means, with respect to a Board-regulated institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at the Board-regulated institution., Loss given default (LGD) means:, (1) For a wholesale exposure, the greatest of:, (i) Zero;, (ii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or, (iii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions., (2) For a segment of retail exposures, the greatest of:, (i) Zero;, (ii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or, (iii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions., (3) The economic loss on an exposure in the event of default is all material credit-related losses on the exposure (including accrued but unpaid interest or fees, losses on the sale of collateral, direct workout costs, and an appropriate allocation of indirect workout costs). Where positive or negative cash flows on a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or a defaulted retail exposure (including proceeds from the sale of collateral, workout costs, additional extensions of credit to facilitate repayment of the exposure, and draw-downs of unused credit lines) occur after the date of default, the economic loss must reflect the net present value of cash flows as of the default date using a discount rate appropriate to the risk of the defaulted exposure., Obligor means the legal entity or natural person contractually obligated on a wholesale exposure, except that a Board-regulated institution may treat the following exposures as having separate obligors:, (1) Exposures to the same legal entity or natural person denominated in different currencies;, (2)(i) An income-producing real estate exposure for which all or substantially all of the repayment of the exposure is reliant on the cash flows of the real estate serving as collateral for the exposure; the Board-regulated institution, in economic substance, does not have recourse to the borrower beyond the real estate collateral; and no cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place other than clauses obtained solely out of an abundance of caution; and, (ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person; and, (3)(i) A wholesale exposure authorized under section 364 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 364) to a legal entity or natural person who is a debtor-in-possession for purposes of Chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code; and, (ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person., Operational loss means a loss (excluding insurance or tax effects) resulting from an operational loss event. Operational loss includes all expenses associated with an operational loss event except for opportunity costs, forgone revenue, and costs related to risk management and control enhancements implemented to prevent future operational losses., Operational loss event means an event that results in loss and is associated with any of the following seven operational loss event type categories:, (1) Internal fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act involving at least one internal party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent regulations, the law, or company policy excluding diversity- and discrimination-type events., (2) External fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act by a third party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent the law. Retail credit card losses arising from non-contractual, third-party-initiated fraud (for example, identity theft) are external fraud operational losses. All other third-party-initiated credit losses are to be treated as credit risk losses., (3) Employment practices and workplace safety, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act inconsistent with employment, health, or safety laws or agreements, payment of personal injury claims, or payment arising from diversity- and discrimination-type events., (4) Clients, products, and business practices, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the nature or design of a product or from an unintentional or negligent failure to meet a professional obligation to specific clients (including fiduciary and suitability requirements)., (5) Damage to physical assets, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the loss of or damage to physical assets from natural disaster or other events., (6) Business disruption and system failures, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from disruption of business or system failures., (7) Execution, delivery, and process management, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from failed transaction processing or process management or losses arising from relations with trade counterparties and vendors., Operational risk means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk)., Operational risk exposure means the 99.9th percentile of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system over a one-year horizon (and not incorporating eligible operational risk offsets or qualifying operational risk mitigants)., Other retail exposure means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, an equity exposure, a residential mortgage exposure, a pre-sold construction loan, a qualifying revolving exposure, or the residual value portion of a lease exposure) that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and is either:, (1) An exposure to an individual for non-business purposes; or, (2) An exposure to an individual or company for business purposes if the Board-regulated institution's consolidated business credit exposure to the individual or company is $1 million or less., Probability of default (PD) means:, (1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor, the Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the rating grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the obligor, capturing the average default experience for obligors in the rating grade over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the rating grade., (2) For a segment of non-defaulted retail exposures, the Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the exposures in the segment, capturing the average default experience for exposures in the segment over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the segment., (3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, 100 percent., Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement means a qualifying master netting agreement that provides for termination and close-out netting across multiple types of financial transactions or qualifying master netting agreements in the event of a counterparty's default, provided that the underlying financial transactions are OTC derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions. In order to treat an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution must comply with the requirements of § 217.3(c) of this part with respect to that agreement., Qualifying revolving exposure (QRE) means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) to an individual that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and:, (1) Is revolving (that is, the amount outstanding fluctuates, determined largely by a borrower's decision to borrow and repay up to a pre-established maximum amount, except for an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month);, (2) Is unsecured and unconditionally cancelable by the Board-regulated institution to the fullest extent permitted by Federal law; and, (3)(i) Has a maximum contractual exposure amount (drawn plus undrawn) of up to $100,000; or, (ii) With respect to a product with an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month, the total outstanding amount does not in practice exceed $100,000., (4) A segment of exposures that contains one or more exposures that fails to meet paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition must be treated as a segment of other retail exposures for the 24 month period following the month in which the total outstanding amount of one or more exposures individually exceeds $100,000., Retail exposure means a residential mortgage exposure, a qualifying revolving exposure, or an other retail exposure., Retail exposure subcategory means the residential mortgage exposure, qualifying revolving exposure, or other retail exposure subcategory., Risk parameter means a variable used in determining risk-based capital requirements for wholesale and retail exposures, specifically probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), exposure at default (EAD), or effective maturity (M)., Scenario analysis means a systematic process of obtaining expert opinions from business managers and risk management experts to derive reasoned assessments of the likelihood and loss impact of plausible high-severity operational losses. Scenario analysis may include the well-reasoned evaluation and use of external operational loss event data, adjusted as appropriate to ensure relevance to a Board-regulated institution's operational risk profile and control structure., Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets means the sum of:, (1) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures that are not IMM exposures, cleared transactions, or default fund contributions to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures;, (2) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures;, (3) Risk-weighted assets for assets not defined by an exposure category;, (4) Risk-weighted assets for non-material portfolios of exposures;, (5) Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures (as determined in § 217.132(d));, (6) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions (as determined in § 217.133); and, (7) Risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions (as determined in § 217.136)., Unexpected operational loss (UOL) means the difference between the Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure and the Board-regulated institution's expected operational loss., Unit of measure means the level (for example, organizational unit or operational loss event type) at which the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system generates a separate distribution of potential operational losses., Wholesale exposure means a credit exposure to a company, natural person, sovereign, or governmental entity (other than a securitization exposure, retail exposure, pre-sold construction loan, or equity exposure)., Wholesale exposure subcategory means the HVCRE or non-HVCRE wholesale exposure subcategory.

PART 217 - CAPITAL ADEQUACY OF BANK HOLDING COMPANIES, SAVINGS AND LOAN HOLDING COMPANIES, AND STATE MEMBER BANKS (REGULATION Q)


(a) Base risk retention requirement. Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 244.4 through 244.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity)., (b) Multiple sponsors. If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of § 244.4, § 244.5, § 244.8, § 244.9, or § 244.10.

PART 244 - CREDIT RISK RETENTION (REGULATION RR)

§ 244.3   Base risk retention requirement.